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ACSM 010-111 ACSM certified Personal Trainer Exam Practice Test

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Total 346 questions

ACSM certified Personal Trainer Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Overtraining symptoms may include ______.

Options:

A.

decreased neuromuscular strength

B.

increased body weight

C.

reduced submaximal heart rates

D.

decreased creatine kinase levels in the skeletal muscle

Question 2

In order to lose 1.5 pounds per week with diet alone, one would have to reduce his/her daily caloric intake per day by ______ kilocarlories.

Options:

A.

350

B.

500

C.

750

D.

1000

Question 3

Older adults may have difficulty performing activities of daily living due to ______.

Options:

A.

decreased joint mobility

B.

increased percent of type I muscle fibers

C.

decreased maximal heart rate

D.

increased muscle elasticity

Question 4

Which joint has the greatest range of motion and involves the greatest number of movements?

Options:

A.

Knee

B.

Shoulder

C.

Hip

D.

Ankle

Question 5

What is a potential side effect of taking diet pills prior to an exercise session?

Options:

A.

Increased fatigue

B.

Increase in muscle soreness

C.

No side effect on exercise and training

D.

Increase in blood pressure and heart rate

Question 6

Which describes a Valsalva maneuver performed during a free weight biceps curl?

Options:

A.

A normal part of the concentric phase of the exercise.

B.

Inspiration of air through an open glottis.

C.

A normal part of the eccentric phase of the exercise.

D.

Expiration of pressure against a closed glottis.

Question 7

What are the minimal body fat percentages that place individuals at increased risk of disease?

Options:

A.

male 23%, female 33%

B.

male 30%, female 35%

C.

male 32%, female 25%

D.

male 35%, female 30%

Question 8

Which is the most important exercise to include in an overall training plan for an apparently healthy automobile mechanic who performs daily overhead movements?

Options:

A.

Lat pulldown

B.

Upright row

C.

Biceps curl

D.

Shoulder press

Question 9

Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness.

What initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification does this client fall into?

Options:

A.

Low risk

B.

Moderate risk

C.

High risk

D.

Very high risk

Question 10

Decreased muscle masses as a result of the aging process plays a role in ______ and ______.

Options:

A.

glucose intolerance, declining independence

B.

glucose tolerance, balance impairment

C.

reduced bone mineral density, improved mobility

D.

reduced adiposity, improved independence

Question 11

During your initial assessment of your client, you notice her resting heart rate is 45 beats per minute, while asymptomatic and not taking any medication. Based on this information, what best describes the heart rate?

Options:

A.

Regular

B.

Tachycardia

C.

Bradycardia

D.

Normal

Question 12

Downhill running is characterized by eccentric activation of the ______.

Options:

A.

hamstrings

B.

transverse abdominus

C.

brachioradialis

D.

quadriceps

Question 13

Henry would like to focus on improving strength in his chest muscles. Which exercise reflects the specificity principle?

Options:

A.

Dumbbell fly

B.

Dumbbell curl

C.

Seated row

D.

Seated lat pull-down

Question 14

What is the purpose of the Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion?

Options:

A.

To estimate oxygen consumption during exercise.

B.

To estimate the level of fatigue during exercise.

C.

To estimate systolic and diastolic blood pressure during exercise.

D.

To estimate subject's immediate intrinsic motivation during exercise.

Question 15

You learn that your client does not enjoy exercising and only maintains their exercise program to please their significant other. This client is ______ motivated.

Options:

A.

extrinsically

B.

instrinsically

C.

tangibly

D.

physically

Question 16

What is tachycardia?

Options:

A.

Heart rate less than 60 beats per minute

B.

Heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute

C.

Heart rate between 70 and 80 beats per minute

D.

Heart rate between 90 and 100 beats per minute

Question 17

Which muscle is a major agonist for hip abduction?

Options:

A.

Sartorius

B.

Gracilis

C.

Rectus femoris

D.

Gluteus maximus

Question 18

What is most likely the cause of light-headedness and dizziness experienced by an older adult who moves from a lying to a standing position?

Options:

A.

Decreased venous return

B.

Increased blood pressure

C.

Increased stroke volume

D.

Decreased heart rate

Question 19

What does the sit-and-reach test assess?

Options:

A.

Trunk flexion

B.

Trunk extension

C.

Shoulder extension

D.

Shoulder flexion

Question 20

What behavioral strategy are you employing when you plan an outdoor exercise program for your client during his upcoming three-week vacation?

Options:

A.

Decisional balance

B.

Stimulus control

C.

Relapse prevention

D.

Self-monitoring

Question 21

Which component should be the primary focus of the mission statement for a personal training business?

Options:

A.

Business ideals

B.

Proposed budget

C.

Annual strategic goals

D.

Operating principles

Question 22

Which of the following practices are NOT recommended for persons with asthma who desire to participate in a strenuous aerobic exercise program?

Options:

A.

Exercise in an environment with warm, moist air.

B.

Self-administer prescribed medication as directed prior to or during the exercise session.

C.

Use a short, intense warm-up.

D.

Use a scarf or surgical mask in front of the mouth if exercising in cold weather.

Question 23

What muscle extends the elbow?

Options:

A.

Supinator teres

B.

Pronator teres

C.

Biceps brachii

D.

Triceps brachii

Question 24

When developing an exercise prescription for a client visiting a high altitude environment (over 1500 m), the personal trainer should be aware that ______.

Options:

A.

it may take about a week to fully acclimate to the altitude

B.

it may take up to two weeks to overcome decreased exercise performance

C.

submaximal heart rate would be lower during the exercise session

D.

aerobic capacity is reduced due to higher partial pressures of oxygen

Question 25

If the facility's ______ is not in place, a potential for litigation could occur.

Options:

A.

emergency policy

B.

mission statement

C.

facility cleanliness

D.

supervisor policy

Question 26

You have a new male client who is 68” (1.73m) tall, 36 years old, weighs 194 lbs (88 kg) and is cleared by his physician to begin an exercise program of moderate intensity. Which constitutes a SMART weight loss goal for him?

Options:

A.

Lose 2 lbs (0.9 kg) per week by swimming 60-90 minutes, three times a week.

B.

Lose 1-2 lbs (0.45-0.9 kg) per week by walking 40 minutes, 5 times a week at 3.8 mph (6.1 km/hr) on the treadmill.

C.

Lose 3-4 lbs (1.4-1.8 kg) per week by bicycling an hour daily around the neighborhood.

D.

Lose 2 lbs (0.9 kg) per week by maintaining a 1200 calorie diet and doing aqua aerobics threetimes a week.

Question 27

Which statement is not an American College of Sports Medicine guideline for aerobic exercise and the older adult?

Options:

A.

Moderate intensity exercise on most days of the week.

B.

Exercise must be vigorous and continuous to be beneficial.

C.

Intensity guidelines established for younger people generally applies.

D.

Initally increase exercise duration rather than intensity.

Question 28

Joe consumed half of the adult Recommended Dietary Allowance for carbohydrates as noted on the nutrition facts panel for persons consuming 2500 calories per day. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrates does Joe have remaining today?

Options:

A.

55

B.

188

C.

375

D.

752

Question 29

Failure to conduct thorough pre-participation screenings with members puts the personal trainer at increased risk of being sued for ______.

Options:

A.

negligence

B.

discrimination

C.

breach of contract

D.

HIPAA violations

Question 30

What behavior change technique includes expressing empathy, developing discrepancy, rolling with resistance, and supporting self-efficacy?

Options:

A.

Motivational interviewing

B.

Outcome expectancies

C.

Visual imagery

D.

Addressing relapse

Question 31

What is defined as the ability to move a joint through its normal range of motion?

Options:

A.

Agility

B.

Stability

C.

Flexibility

D.

Hypomobility

Question 32

A client who reports a decreased Rating of Perceived Exertion at a given treadmill running speed after taking albuterol, likely suffers from which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Depression

B.

Asthma

C.

Bradycardia

D.

Claudication

Question 33

What acute cardiovascular responses accompany the transition from sitting to walking?

Options:

A.

Increase in heart rate, decrease in stroke volume

B.

Increase in stroke volume, decrease in systolic blood pressure

C.

Increase in cardiac output, and arteriovenous oxygen difference

D.

Increase in diastolic blood pressure and heart rate

Question 34

This law grants immunity to those persons who in good faith try to protect, serve and tend to others who are injured or ill but does NOT apply to the fitness professional while serving on the job.

Options:

A.

First Responder Law

B.

Heimlich Law

C.

Good Samaritan Law

D.

Duty to Rescue Law

Question 35

As the percentage of 1 RM (Repetition Maximum) resistance increases ______.

Options:

A.

the amount of rest between training days should increase

B.

the number of sets performed should increase

C.

the number of repetitions until fatigue decreases

D.

the amount of rest between sets should decrease

Question 36

What is the American College of Sports Medicine's recommendation regarding frequency to increase cardiorespiratory fitness?

Options:

A.

One to two days per week

B.

Two to three days per week

C.

Three to five days per week

D.

Four to six days per week

Question 37

Together, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the American College of Sports Medicine recommend that every US adult should accumulate _____ minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all days of the week.

Options:

A.

15

B.

20

C.

30

D.

60

Question 38

Case study: A new client who has been resistance training for 6 months, comes to you with a goal of increasing muscular size. Following health appraisal and fitness testing including a modified 1 RM test, you design a program to meet the client's goal. Which of the following regimens best defines an appropriate plan to achieve this client's goal?

Options:

A.

4-6 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 85% 1 RM

B.

1-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions at 75% 1 RM

C.

4-6 sets of 10-15 repetitions at 60% 1 RM

D.

1-3 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 60% 1 RM

Question 39

Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?

Options:

A.

One intensive day followed by three easy days.

B.

One long day followed by three shorter duration days.

C.

Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.

D.

A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.

Question 40

What of the following is the formula for calculating the heart rate reserve?

Options:

A.

220, minus the age of the client

B.

220, minus the resting heart rate

C.

Client's maximum heart rate, minus their resting heart rate

D.

Client's maximum heart rate, minus their age

Question 41

What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine?

Options:

A.

Kyphotic curve

B.

Scoliotic curve

C.

Lordotic curve

D.

Myotic curve

Question 42

An appropriate exercise to develop muscle endurance for the ________ is ________ .

Options:

A.

quadriceps; one set of 15 knee flexions at low resistance.

B.

triceps; one set of 15 repetitions of arm curls at low resistance.

C.

wrist flexors; one set of 15 repetitions of wrist curls at low resistance.

D.

hip abductors; one set of 15 repetitions of half-squats at low resistance.

Question 43

What is the suggested order of an exercise session?

Options:

A.

Stretch, warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down

B.

Warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down, stretch

C.

Stretch, endurance phase, warm-up, cool-down

D.

Warm-up, endurance phase, stretch, cool-down

Question 44

What is the order of stretching techniques from lowest risk of injury to highest risk of injury?

Options:

A.

Ballistic; slow static; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

B.

Slow static; ballistic; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

C.

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic; slow static.

D.

Slow static; proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation; ballistic.

Question 45

Which of the following best describes the symptoms that occur at 24-48 hours after a single bout of intensive exercise?

Options:

A.

Delayed onset muscle strain.

B.

Acute onset muscle strain.

C.

Delayed onset muscle soreness.

D.

Acute onset muscle soreness.

Question 46

What health-related physical fitness component is primarily emphasized in a circuit training program that has 30 stations, 60 seconds per station, at 25% of one repetition maximum?

Options:

A.

Muscular Strength

B.

Muscular Flexibility

C.

Muscular Endurance

D.

Muscular Power

Question 47

What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction?

Options:

A.

Myofibril

B.

Sarcomere

C.

Myosin

D.

Sarcolemma

Question 48

Which of the following is the correct energy expenditure in METs associated with an exercise oxygen uptake of 28 ml·kg-1·min-1?

Options:

A.

8

B.

10

C.

98

D.

112

Question 49

Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?

Options:

A.

Coxal (hip)

B.

Atlantooccipital

C.

Radiocarpal (wrist)

D.

Sacroiliac

Question 50

What position should women in their second or third trimester of pregnancy avoid when performing exercise?

Options:

A.

Prone

B.

Supine

C.

On their side

D.

On all fours (hands and knees)

Question 51

Adenosine triphosphate production via "anaerobic" glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?

Options:

A.

Pyruvic Acid

B.

Phosphoric Acid

C.

Citric Acid

D.

Lactic Acid

Question 52

What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?

Options:

A.

Vastus lateralis

B.

Iliopsoas

C.

Biceps femoris

D.

Gluteus maximus

Question 53

Which of the following is also known as the Trunk Flexion Test?

Options:

A.

Sit-and-reach test.

B.

Curl-up test for muscular endurance.

C.

Sit-up test for muscular endurance.

D.

Any test that requires clients to touch their toes.

Question 54

Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?

Options:

A.

Gastrocnemius

B.

Iliopsoas

C.

Gracilis

D.

Sartorius

Question 55

What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?

Options:

A.

Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.

B.

Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.

C.

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.

D.

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.

Question 56

What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?

Options:

A.

Perform less-intensively than normal

B.

Do not perform it as often

C.

Perform it slower than normal

D.

Do not perform at all

Question 57

Why is a cool-down period important?

Options:

A.

Prevents heat stroke

B.

Helps prevent injuries

C.

Reduces brain blood flow back to normal

D.

Returns pooled blood back to central circulation

Question 58

Mitral valve prolapse is a condition which primarily affects the .

Options:

A.

Sino-atrial node.

B.

Bicuspid valve.

C.

Tricuspid valve.

D.

Descending aorta.

Question 59

What is the function of the tricuspid valve?

Options:

A.

It acts as a pacemaker.

B.

To pump blood through the heart.

C.

Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium.

D.

Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium.

Question 60

A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the following describes the muscle action during the extension?

Options:

A.

Isotonic concentric

B.

Isotonic eccentric

C.

Isokinetic concentric

D.

Isokinetic eccentric

Question 61

Using the Heart Rate Reserve method, what is the target heart rate for a 40 year-old man with a resting heart rate of 70 beats/min, exercising at an intensity of 65%?

Options:

A.

110 beats/min

B.

129 beats/min

C.

142 beats/min

D.

180 beats/min

Question 62

From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:

Options:

A.

bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi

B.

posterior deltoid

C.

anterior deltoid and triceps brachii

D.

middle deltoid.

Question 63

Which of the following statements is true regarding exercise for the prepubescent child?

Options:

A.

Children are less tolerant of heat because of a higher threshold for sweating.

B.

Since children are anatomically immature, they should not participate in any form of resistance training exercise.

C.

Because of the lack of development of the epiphyseal growth plates, children should not participate in any form of endurance training.

D.

Both B and C are true

Question 64

Which of the following is a result of chronic aerobic training?

Options:

A.

Increased lipid production.

B.

Decreased plasma triglyceride levels.

C.

Decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels.

D.

Increased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels.

Question 65

Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action followed by concentric action of the same muscle?

Options:

A.

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

B.

Plyometrics

C.

Dynamic Activity Preparation

D.

Progression

Question 66

The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric phase of a resistance training repetition?

Options:

A.

Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate

B.

Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate

C.

Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure

D.

Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure

Question 67

What is a function of the hamstring muscles?

Options:

A.

Hip flexors

B.

Hip extensors

C.

Plantar flexors

D.

Knee extensors

Question 68

Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?

Options:

A.

Four weeks

B.

Eight weeks

C.

Twelve weeks

D.

Sixteen weeks

Question 69

How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?

Options:

A.

Exponentially

B.

Linearly

C.

Curvilinearly

D.

Inversely

Question 70

Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.

Options:

A.

plyometric

B.

isokinetic

C.

ballistic

D.

isotonic

Question 71

What is the anatomical reference for the waist circumference measurement?

Options:

A.

The maximal circumference between the chest to just below the gluteal fold.

B.

Two centimeters below the umbilicus.

C.

Narrowest part of the torso, above the umbilicus, and below the xiphoid process.

D.

At the level of the umbilicus.

Question 72

What does waist to hip ratio assess?

Options:

A.

Frame size

B.

Weight relative to height

C.

Distribution of body weight

D.

The amount of subcutaneous fat

Question 73

Which of the following indicates the correct order for a traditional periodization program for resistance training?

Options:

A.

hypertrophy, peaking, strength/power, recovery

B.

strength/power, peaking, recovery, hypertrophy

C.

strength/power, hypertrophy, recovery, peaking

D.

hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, recovery

Question 74

Which of the following is a limiting factor when using the body mass index (BMI) to determine obesity and disease risk?

Options:

A.

Body density must be computed or estimated first.

B.

Skinfold thicknesses must be measured first.

C.

Fat and lean tissue weights are not differentiated.

D.

Underestimates individuals with above average muscle mass.

Question 75

A certified Personal Trainer fails to properly spot a client performing heavy incline dumbbell presses and the client injures himself. This is an example of what type of negligence?

Options:

A.

Casual

B.

Serious

C.

Omission

D.

Commission

Question 76

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when starting the process for exercise prescription for a new client?

Options:

A.

Obtain a medical history, have the client perform a risk factor assessment, interpret the data, prescribe exercise, give lifestyle counseling.

B.

Obtain a medical history, have the client perform a risk factor assessment, administer fitness tests, interpret the data, prescribe exercise.

C.

Have the client perform a risk factor assessment, obtain a medical history, administer fitness tests, prescribe exercise and interpret the data.

D.

Have the client perform a fitness assessment, obtain a medical history, give lifestyle counseling, interpret the data, prescribe exercise.

Question 77

Mr. Smith wishes to enroll in your exercise program. Preliminary evaluation revealed the following information:

Age = 50 years Resting heart rate = 78 beats/min

Weight = 198 lb (90 kg) Resting blood pressure = 162/94 mm Hg

Height = 70 inches (178 cm) Body fat = 30%

Blood chemistry:

Total cholesterol = 240 mg/dl (6.21 mmol/L)

HDL cholesterol = 34 mg/dl (0.88 mmol/L)

Triglycerides = 180 mg/dl (2.03 mmol/L)

Glucose = 98 mg/dl (5.55 mmol/L)

Family history and current habits:

Father died of heart attack at 90 years of age

Hypertensive mother died at age 84

Smokes a pipe after dinner each evening

Smokes cigarettes (25-30 per day)

Reports too much work and is struggling to meet deadlines

Currently doing moderate exercise

No medications at present

According to ACSM stratification guidelines, Mr. Smith has which of the following coronary artery disease risk factors?

Options:

A.

Hypertension, obesity, high total cholesterol:HDL ratio.

B.

Smoking, probable diabetes, high blood pressure.

C.

Smoking, high total cholesterol, aggressive type A personality.

D.

Hypertension, high total cholesterol, smoking.

Question 78

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the warm-up and cool-down components of the exercise training session?

Options:

A.

Warm-up should last twice as long as cool-down.

B.

Cool-down should approximate an intensity that is between 40 and 60% of VO2R

C.

Warm-up need not involve cardiorespiratory activity if the conditioning phase of the exercise session involves resistance training.

D.

Cool-down during the exercise session can be eliminated if at least 10 minutes of stretching is performed instead.

Question 79

What is the correct hand placement when spotting the dumbbell fly exercise?

Options:

A.

Close to your clients biceps without touching them.

B.

Close to the dumbbells or wrists of your client without touching them.

C.

Maintaining contact behind your clients elbows on the descent of the dumbbells.

D.

Hands held at your sides in a ready position, with your elbows flexed at a 45-degree angle.

Question 80

What is the difference between absolute and relative contraindication?

Options:

A.

Relative contraindications are acute where absolute contraindications are chronic.

B.

Absolute contraindications consist of risk/benefit analysis whereas relative contraindications do not.

C.

Absolute contraindications prevent the individual from participating in some testing and participation whereas relative contraindications do not allow any participation in exercise testing or prescription.

D.

Absolute contraindications prevent the individual from any/all exercise testing and prescription whereas relative contraindications allow for some testing and participation.

Question 81

What exercise should be avoided for a person suffering from shoulder impingement syndrome?

Options:

A.

Lateral raise

B.

Seated row

C.

Overhead press

D.

Bench press

Question 82

What factors should be taken into account when determining appropriate exercise test and mode?

Options:

A.

Age, health history, lifestyle

B.

Age, health history, gender

C.

Health history, lifestyle, occupation

D.

Health history, gender, lifestyle

Question 83

The recommended initial treatment for an acute joint injury is the application of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compression combined with short intervals of cold and heat.

B.

Elevation and heat.

C.

Compression and heat.

D.

Compression and cold.

Question 84

What is a warning sign of anorexia nervosa?

Options:

A.

Eating when depressed

B.

Prefering to eat in isolation

C.

Visits to the bathroom following meals

D.

Frequent gains and losses in body weight

Question 85

A client at your fitness center complains of a headache and seems disoriented. He appears ashen and has moist, cold skin. You know from his health history that he has Type II diabetes. Which of the following steps do you take after you call for medical assistance?

Options:

A.

Administer insulin.

B.

Administer sugar.

C.

Administer water.

D.

Administer nothing… wait until emergency medical services arrive.

Question 86

With respect to the exercise prescription for children (defined as < 13 years), it can be said that _____.

Options:

A.

adult guidelines for resistance training can generally be applied

B.

treadmill exercise is not a suitable mode of testing

C.

exercise should be limited to 3-4 d · wk-1

D.

vigorous activity should be avoided in this population

Question 87

What is the correct order of an effective program planning model?

Options:

A.

Needs assessment, program implementation, program planning, program evaluation

B.

Program assessment, needs planning, program implementation, program evaluation

C.

Program assessment, program planning, program implementation, program evaluation

D.

Needs assessment, program planning, program implementation, program evaluation

Question 88

Which of the following indicate the appropriate height range for performing depth jump training effectively and safely?

Options:

A.

16 to 42 inches (41 to 107 cm)

B.

24 to 48 inches (61 to 122 cm)

C.

32 to 60 inches (81 to 152 cm)

D.

40 to 60 inches (102 to 152 cm)

Question 89

Which of the following statements about dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is correct?

Options:

A.

The body does not produce DHEA.

B.

DHEA has been shown to improve body composition and physical performance in most elderly men and women.

C.

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has classified DHEA as a controlled drug.

D.

DHEA has no potential influence on testosterone production by both men and women.

Question 90

Which of the following is a potential danger of long-term consumption of a high-protein diet?

Options:

A.

Zinc becomes less absorbable

B.

Calcium is drawn from the bones & excreted in the urine

C.

Iron levels drop causing anemia

D.

Sodium is lost in the sweat causing hyponatremia

Question 91

An auditory learner benefits most from which of the following?

Options:

A.

Written instructions

B.

Voice cues

C.

Touch training

D.

Demonstrations

Question 92

As described by the American College of Sports Medicine, proper technique during the push-up test involves _____.

Options:

A.

timing the number of push-ups performed in two minutes

B.

requiring both female and male subjects to use the toes as the pivotal point of movement

C.

allowing a slight (20°) elbow flexion at the "top" of the movement

D.

stopping the test when the subject strains forcibly

Question 93

An athlete in heavy endurance training should maintain a daily carbohydrate intake that is approximately what percentage of his/her total energy intake?

Options:

A.

30%

B.

55%

C.

65%

D.

85%

Question 94

What type of learner would benefit from a handout with written instructions?

Options:

A.

Visual

B.

Aesthetic

C.

Auditory

D.

Kinesthetic

Question 95

General guidelines to follow when prescribing resistance training exercise to the client with arthritis include which of the following?

Options:

A.

regimens with a frequency of 2-3 days per week

B.

intensities that never exceed body weight

C.

regimens with a frequency of no more than once per week

D.

machine (as opposed to free weight) modes only

Question 96

For the comparison of body mass index (BMI) and plethysmography body composition assessment techniques, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Plethysmography is inferior to BMI because of the difficulties associated with determination of lung volume.

B.

BMI is inferior to plethysmography because it does not account for lean/fat mass in its calculation.

C.

Plethysmography is superior to BMI because it accounts for the hydration state of the client.

D.

BMI is superior to plethysmography because its standard error of estimate for predicting percent body fat is usually lower.

Question 97

What is the initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification of a 57 year old female client who has a blood pressure of 150/70 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 240 mg/dL (6.2 mmol/L)?

Options:

A.

No risk

B.

Low risk

C.

Moderate risk

D.

High risk

Question 98

Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness.

What initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification does this client fall into?

Options:

A.

Low risk

B.

Moderate risk

C.

High risk

D.

Very high risk

Question 99

When discussing strategies for changing physical activity habits with clients, it is usually best to:

Options:

A.

give strong and clear advice about what works based on your professional experience.

B.

assist clients to formulate their own behavior change strategies based on what has worked for them before.

C.

refer clients to a behavioral psychologist for expert advice.

D.

emphasize knowledge of the health benefits of exercise.

Question 100

What is the equivalent of 2.5 pounds (1.13 kg) of body fat in kilocalories?

Options:

A.

5250 kilocalories

B.

7000 kilocalories

C.

8000 kilocalories

D.

8750 kilocalories

Question 101

A client is attempting to lose 10 pounds. In order to lose 1.5 pounds per week, she will have to reduce her caloric intake per day by how many calories?

Options:

A.

350

B.

500

C.

750

D.

1000

Question 102

If a 50 year old male checked a "yes" response on his PAR-Q, what is the next step for his certified Personal Trainer?

Options:

A.

Administer fitness test and begin program

B.

Refer client to his physician

C.

Discuss health history and begin program

D.

Recommend a maximal stress test

Question 103

Your client is 5' 3" tall and weighs 130 pounds. After calculating her BMI, you have determined that she falls in which of the following weight status categories?

Options:

A.

Underweight

B.

Normal

C.

Overweight

D.

Obese

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Total 346 questions