New Year Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70special

ASQ CQE Certified Quality EngineerExam Exam Practice Test

Page: 1 / 18
Total 175 questions

Certified Quality EngineerExam Questions and Answers

Testing Engine

  • Product Type: Testing Engine
$37.5  $124.99

PDF Study Guide

  • Product Type: PDF Study Guide
$33  $109.99
Question 1

A company is designing a production process for a new consumer product. To ensure that the product will be traceable from design and production through end-user receipt and use. the company must develop a system for product

Options:

A.

review

B.

packaging

C.

identification

D.

storage

Question 2

Competition, safety, warranty, service costs, and public liability are all characteristics of

Options:

A.

perceived risk

B.

supplier-customer agreement

C.

cost management

D.

system reliability'

Question 3

A company uses four components (W. X. Y. and Z) to create its final product. The source and time factors for these components are listed below. What is die critical path for this company's final product?

ComponentSourceAcquisition TimeInstallation TimePredecessor Steps

WInternaln/a4 weeksNone

XExternal5 weeks4 weeksNone

YInternaln/a4 weeksW.X.Z

ZInternaln/a6 weeksNone

Options:

A.

6 weeks

B.

8 weeks

C.

9 weeks

D.

13 weeks

Question 4

Which of the following types of planning uses a strategic planning process that relates idealistic goals to work strategy?

Options:

A.

Yoji planning

B.

Hoshin planning

C.

Juran planning

D.

Deining planning

Question 5

Registration to the ISO 9001 standard requires which of the following types of audit?

Options:

A.

Process

B.

Product

C.

Second-party

D.

Third-party’

Question 6

Choosing design settings to minimize the effect of noise is a goal of

Options:

A.

robust design

B.

tolerance design

C.

design verification

D.

design for maintainability

Question 7

Short-run SPC should be used in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

The coded data being used do not show significant shifts in the process.

B.

Regular SPC charts show the process to be out of control.

C.

Many different parts are made in small lots.

D.

The number of charts currently used needs to be increased to control the process better.

Question 8

Which of the following techniques is used when implementing single minute exchange of die?

Options:

A.

Using more fasteners and clamps

B.

Eliminating the use of intermediate jigs

C.

Separating internal and external setup operations

D.

Adjusting and eliminating mechanization

Question 9

M in tills drawing, the symbol is being used to indicate the

H Calculator

Options:

A.

minimum material condition

B.

minimum measured condition

C.

maximum material condition

D.

maximum measured condition

Question 10

Which of the following tools is an example of a noncontact measurement tool?

Options:

A.

Laser scanner

B.

Hardness tester

C.

Micrometer

D.

Caliper

Question 11

Which of the following is most important to shaping the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

Geographic location

B.

Management philosophy

C.

Market share

D.

Implement ISO

Question 12

The following is an incomplete ANOVA table.

SourcessdfMSF

Treatment3334

Error20

Total64324

What is the value of the F-statistic used to test for differences in treatment?

Options:

A.

0.21

B.

1.07

C.

2.87

D.

5.37

Question 13

A graph of a data set, composed of a series of rectangles, each proportional in width to the range of values in a class and proportional in height to the number of items or fraction of items falling in these classes, is called which of the following?

Options:

A.

Histogram.

B.

Raw data.

C.

Ogive.

D.

Venn diagram.

Question 14

The effectiveness of corrective action can best be assessed by

Options:

A.

assuring that the appropriate processing documentation is changed to reflect the action taken

B.

changing the data collection system to capture the results of the corrective action

C.

redefining the applicable inspection, test, or process control requirements

D.

measuring the results of the corrective action

Question 15

Which of the following tools can be used to evaluate the normality of a data set?

Options:

A.

Probability plot

B.

CUSUM chart

C.

Box and whisker chart

D.

Kruskal-Wallis rest

Question 16

Which of the following statements is true regarding a failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA)?

Options:

A.

A FMEA is a pictorial representation of the reliability interdependency of components.

B.

A FMEA should not get updated throughout the life cycle of the product.

C.

The advantage of a FMEA is to communicate the risk with different stakeholders.

D.

The first step in the development of an FMEA is to calculate the Risk Priority Number (RPN).

Question 17

In reliability testing, operating an item in order to stabilize its characteristics is known as

Options:

A.

burn-in

B.

infant mortality

C.

debugging

D.

derating

Question 18

How many total degrees of freedom are in an unreplicated 23 factorial experiment?

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

1

Question 19

When a 24 experiment is fractionated to a 24'5 experiment, the fractioned design is also known as a

Options:

A.

90% fraction

B.

75% fraction

C.

fraction

D.

fraction

Question 20

A company has received many customer complaints due to damaged units being received at the customer's distribution center. After a thorough investigation, it is determined that the units' packaging is insufficient. The company decides that a potential solution is to add reinforcements to the unit packaging to resolve the issue. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Implement the solution

B.

Pilot the solution

C.

Outsource packaging testing

D.

Consider implementing the solution on similar products

Question 21

The risk priority number (RPN) is determined by the

Options:

A.

sum of reliability value, criticality number, and failure mode

B.

sum of frequency of the occurrence, severity, and detection ratings

C.

product of reliability value, criticality number, and failure mode

D.

product of frequency of the occurrence, severity, and detection ratings

Question 22

A process that is in statistical control has the following characteristics.

X 122

J? = 2! n = 5

What are the upper and lower control limits for the A'chart of this process?

Options:

A.

UCL = 12.72. LCL = 11.68

B.

UCL 13.25.LCL 11.15

C.

UCL = 13.41. LCL = 10.99

D.

UCL - 14.30.LCL 10.10

Question 23

Several units from a random sample of units produced on Line 3 were found to be defective. Which of the following actions should be taken next?

Options:

A.

Segregate the defective units

B.

Measure all units produced on the line

C.

Ask someone to disposition the defective units

D.

Measure the units again to confirm they are defective

Question 24

Which of the following actions best describes quality function deployment (QFD)?

Options:

A.

Determining if quality procedures are being followed on the shop floor

B.

Determining which processes are functioning correctly

C.

Linking customer requirements to product features

D.

Reducing costs of a product and product features

Question 25

According to ANSI ASQ Z1.4. switching from tightened inspection to normal inspection can occur when how many consecutive lots have been accepted?

Options:

A.

Four out of five

B.

Five out of five

C.

Eight out of ten

D.

Nine out of ten

Question 26

A three-level, two-variable, full factorial experiment is to be run. The minimum number of runs will be

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

9

D.

18

Question 27

The number of runs required by a full-factorial design with three factors each at two levels is equal to

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

9

D.

12

Question 28

Rank in order the following items from most effective to least effective when developing materials for a quality training program.

1.Case studies

2.General examples

3.Job related examples

4.Theory

Options:

A.

3,4,2,1

B.

4,2,1,3

C.

3,1,2,4

D.

4,1,3,2

Question 29

What type of audit should be used to determine how well an organization's activities conform to its quality program?

Options:

A.

Process

B.

Product

C.

System

D.

Third-party’

Question 30

Which of the following criteria must be considered when a classification of defects system is established?

Options:

A.

The current cost of quality system

B.

The financial impact of the defects

C.

Tightness of tolerance as an indication of failure

D.

The relative seriousness of the defects

Question 31

During a daily production meeting, the materials manager discusses a priority shipment that is being delayed due to material being placed on hold from a nonconformance. The process engineer was present when the material was placed on hold and states that the nonconformance will not impact fit. form or function. The manufacturing manager shares that per the ISO standard, the risk should be accepted and the product should be shipped. Which action would be most appropriate for the quality engineer to take first?

Options:

A.

Commit to initiating a deviation and allow the material to ship but complete a corrective action

B.

Commit to completing a corrective action but insist that the material be scrapped since it is nonconforming

C.

Commit to expediting the review and disposition of the nonconforming material with the MRB

D.

Commit to getting approval from the quality manager to allow the material to ship

Question 32

The primary characteristic of risk management is being

Options:

A.

simple

B.

reactive

C.

unnatural

D.

all-inclusive

Question 33

A way to convince management that a quality improvement program is needed is to present

Options:

A.

the number of audit findings the company received from the last audit

B.

the company's performance in terms of quality in comparison with its competitors

C.

die size of the problem in terms of the potential savings and increased profit that can result from fixing it

D.

data on how employees will produce better quality product and services if their pay is increased and their benefits improved

Question 34

Two advantages of process mapping are the ability to

Ⅰ. Visualize the process being described.

Ⅱ. Discover manufacturing problems only.

Ⅲ. Discover quality problems only.

IV. Check current processes for duplication or redundancy.

Options:

A.

I and IV only

B.

II and III only

C.

I and III only

D.

II and IV only

Question 35

Which of the following is the correct test statistic to use for a paired-sample t test?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 36

Which of the following tools can be used to classify or determine a safety quality characteristic?

Options:

A.

An inspection plan

B.

A criticality analysis

C.

Standard work instructions

D.

A control chan

Question 37

The following data sets were presented to top management.

Which problem area should be targeted for improvement first?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question 38

Reliability prediction is

Ⅰ. The process of performance estimation.

Ⅱ. The process of estimating the probability that a product will perform its intended function for a stated time.

Ⅲ. The process of telling "how you can get there from here".

Options:

A.

I only

B.

II only

C.

II and III only

D.

I, II and III

Question 39

Redundancy, versatility and flexibility are all things that can afreet which of the following elements when collecting and summarizing data?

Options:

A.

Descriptive statistics

B.

Data accuracy

C.

Measurement scales

D.

Data collection methods

Question 40

The primary focus of design FMEA (DFMEA) is to

Options:

A.

identify personnel responsible for implementation

B.

predict failure frequencies

C.

minimize measurement variation

D.

mitigate failure modes

Question 41

Which of the following statements is true about the average outgoing quality limit (AOQL)?

Options:

A.

It is the replacement measure for the acceptance quality limit (AQL).

B.

It assumes screening and replacement of nonconforming units.

C.

It cannot be used to define the Dodge-Romig defect acceptance number.

D.

It can be used instead of ANSI ASQ Z1.4 single sampling plans.

Question 42

A failure node and effects analysis (FMEA) should be classified in what cost of quality category?

Options:

A.

Appraisal

B.

Prevention

C.

Control

D.

Inspection

Question 43

A process produces rejects at a rate of 6° o. If multiple samples of 5 are drawn from a population of 100.000. what is the expected number of rejects per sample?

Options:

A.

0.3

B.

30.0

C.

5,000.0

D.

6,000.0

Question 44

Which of the following tools can be used to communicate performance data in time sequence?

Options:

A.

Scatter diagram

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Control chart

D.

Flow chan

Question 45

Which of the following statements describes discrete data?

Options:

A.

It takes 3 hours 48 minutes to fly from LA to New York.

B.

Of 225 people on the airplane, 85 had connecting flights.

C.

The flight arrived at 9:08 PM.

D.

There were 5,923 gallons of fuel consumed on the flight.

Question 46

The purpose of the opening meeting for an audit is to

Options:

A.

establish the authority of the lead auditor and audit team over the auditees

B.

determine approximately how much time and what resources will be required to conduct the audit

C.

conduct introductions, review the audit's scope and procedures, and clarify details of the audit plan

D.

present the audit team's initial observations regarding the effectiveness of the auditee's quality system

Question 47

Which of the following symbols represents process performance index?

Options:

A.

CP

B.

Cpk

C.

ppk

D.

P

Question 48

If the stated value of a standard is 0.050. and the measurement error is 0.002, which of the following sample data sets shows the greatest precision?

Options:

A.

0.049. 0.048, 0.050, 0.054

B.

0.050. 0.051. 0.049. 0.045

C.

0.050.0.056, 0.047. 0.048

D.

0.055. 0.052. 0.054. 0.056

Question 49

The producer's risk can be determined from the

Options:

A.

acceptance quality limit (AQL)

B.

lot tolerance percent defective (LTPD)

C.

average outgoing quality limit (AOQL)

D.

rejectable quality level (RQL)

Question 50

An engineer has been asked to identify and apply an absolutely objective metric to evaluate risk. The best response is

Options:

A.

an absolutely objective way to measure risk does not exist

B.

lean metrics, because to minimize waste is to minimize risk

C.

six sigma metrics, because a thoroughly controlled process minimizes risk

D.

quality function deployment, to minimize risk as perceived by the customer

Question 51

Writing and establishing process control procedures is

Options:

A.

Disposition.

B.

Notification.

C.

Preventive action.

D.

Corrective action.

Question 52

The values of two different variables are related to each other such that an increase in the value of the first variable is accompanied by a decrease in the value of the second variable. If the variables are perfectly correlated, their correlation coefficient will be equal to

Options:

A.

2.0

B.

1.0

C.

0.0

D.

-1.0

Page: 1 / 18
Total 175 questions