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Avaya 78201X Avaya IP Office Platform Support Certified Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 190 questions

Avaya IP Office Platform Support Certified Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

A customer reports that after they rebooted the IP Office, some users are not receiving calls as they did before. Which two tools can you use to identify the last system changes made?

Options:

A.

Web-Manager

B.

Monitor

C.

Manager

D.

System Status Application

Question 2

A Server Edition customer has a capacity of registering five consoles simultaneously and wants to increase it to seven. What action should be taken to achieve this?

Options:

A.

Add a Preferred Edition license.

B.

Upgrade to Select Mode.

C.

Add five Receptionist licenses.

D.

Upgrade to the latest software version.

Question 3

What displays the progress of a software upgrade on an expansion system?

Options:

A.

Web Manager Dashboard

B.

System Tab

C.

System Monitor Program

D.

IP Office Manager on the expansion system

Question 4

Which three licenses can support the Avaya Equinox® client without the additional need for a softphone? (Select three.)

Options:

A.

Basic User

B.

Teleworker

C.

Power User

D.

Remote Worker

E.

Office Worker

F.

Receptionist

Question 5

In Server Edition Select mode, what method can be utilized to add new users?

Options:

A.

LDAP integration

B.

LMS import

C.

Outlook Plugin

D.

Manual user duplication

Question 6

Refer to the Exhibit.

A customer is setting up an Alarm notification via email.

To get a description of the details of the Minimum Severity Level, if an Event Entity of “Service” is checked, which resource is used?

Options:

A.

the IP_Office_Alarms file in the Manager application installation directory

B.

the IP_Office_Alarms file in the Admin CD in the folder \snmp_mibs\IPOffice\

C.

the Help button in Manager

D.

the IP_Office_Alarms file in the Admin Lite in the folder \snmp_mibs\IPOffice\

Question 7

After the first start-up of an IP Office™ system, some default security Rights Groups are available.

Which Rights Group allows access to the diagnostic application that provides real time status, historic utilization, alarm information, and more?

Options:

A.

TCPA Group

B.

Manager Group

C.

Operator Group

D.

System Status Group

Question 8

When logging in to IP Office Security Settings for the first time using the Manager Application, the default user name is “security”.

What is the default password?

Options:

A.

security

B.

administrator

C.

default

D.

securitypwd

Question 9

When upgrading from a release pre-11.1 to 11.1 or later, which Avaya IP Office™ platform is not affected by the change from CentOS6 to CentOS7?

Options:

A.

PC based Avaya IP Office™ servers

B.

Avaya IP Office™ 500V2 control unit

C.

UCM

D.

Virtualized Avaya IP Office™ servers

Question 10

Which method is NOT recommended to avoid corruption of the data on the SD card when removing the SD card from the IP Office?

Options:

A.

Dial the shutdown short code to shut down the card before removing the SD card.

B.

Use the Manager application to shut down the card before removing the SD card.

C.

Use System Monitor to shut down the card before removing the SD card.

D.

Pull out the card. Special shutdown is not required.

Question 11

In the Distributed Voicemail Pro and the Central Voicemail Pro, what protocol do they use to communicate with each other?

Options:

A.

Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)

B.

Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

C.

Routing Information Protocol version 2 (RIPv2)

D.

Small Community Network (SCN)

Question 12

A company with 500 users has a single Avaya IP Office™ Server Edition providing IP telephony, one-X® Portal for presence and Instant Messaging, Voicemail, Conferencing, and Mobility support. They are buying a remote company with 200 users. They wish to support the 200 new users with same capabilities.

Which type of server that provides distributed telephony capabilities can be added at the remote site?

Options:

A.

one-X® Portal Server

B.

Server Edition Expansion System

C.

Application Server

D.

Server Edition Primary Server

Question 13

What is the approach for updating the voice prompts on the Embedded Voicemail?

Options:

A.

Using the Embedded File Management option in the Manager Application

B.

Leveraging the External File Management feature in the System Status Application

C.

Utilizing the Voice Wizard capability in the Manager Application

D.

Adopting the Embedded Monitoring Management tool

Question 14

Avaya IP Phones to IP Office QoS monitoring can be performed by the IP Office. What are the two actions required to view QoS outcomes? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Choose "Enable Metric" on the Line form.

B.

Check "Enable RTCP Monitoring".

C.

Use DebugView to analyze latency, jitter, and delay.

D.

Trace lines or extensions in SSA.

E.

Allow force authentication on IP telephones.

Question 15

A customer has 25 users who are using one-X Portal, and they have the UCMv2 installed on their IP Office 500 V2 system. What is the maximum number of voicemail ports supported on the Voicemail Pro in this scenario?

Options:

A.

30

B.

20

C.

25

D.

40

Question 16

Which three statements about IP Office Server Edition (non-Select) are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

IP Office Server Edition can support up to 2000 users without additional hardware.

B.

IP Office Server Edition requires an IP Office 500 V2 control unit to support SIP trunks.

C.

IP Office Server Edition can be deployed as a standalone primary server or as a primary/secondary pair.

D.

IP Office Server Edition is a hardware-based solution.

E.

IP Office Server Edition cannot be upgraded to the Select version.

Question 17

Providers are components of one-X® Portal, each of which performs a specific role. What is the purpose of the Telephony CSTA (Computer-Supported Telecommunications Applications) provider in one-X® Portal?

Options:

A.

It provides directory information from the IP Office systems to one-X® Portal.

B.

It handles the browser connections between users and the one-X® Portal server.

C.

It handles telephony communications to and from the IP Office systems assigned to it.

D.

It provides access to the voicemail server for features such as message playback via the browser.

Question 18

A customer has two primary receptionists using SoftConsole, and four back-office employees use SoftConsole on their PCs to cover for the receptionists during breaks or lunch. How many licenses are required to allow this setup to work?

Options:

A.

8

B.

6

C.

2

D.

4

Question 19

A customer has the capacity to register 10 soft consoles simultaneously, and wants to increase that to 15. Which of the following actions would be necessary to complete this increase?

Options:

A.

Add a Preferred license.

B.

Upgrade to Select Mode.

C.

Add five receptionist licenses.

D.

Upgrade to Server Edition.

Question 20

A customer wants to synchronize all their Outlook contacts into the one-X® Portal personnel directory.

What is the recommended method to achieve this while ensuring data integrity and minimal effort?

Options:

A.

Manually copy and paste all contacts from Outlook to the personal directory.

B.

Import the Outlook contacts using a .csv format and configure the synchronization settings.

C.

Integrate the IP Office with Outlook using the Avaya Outlook Plugin.

D.

Add each Outlook contact individually into the personal directory and verify them against the original source.

Question 21

Assuming the Security setting is at its default status, which Service User in Security Administration is responsible for the Avaya IP Office™ user synchronization between the Avaya IP Office™ server and one-X® Portal?

Options:

A.

ServiceUser

B.

EnhTcpaService

C.

Administrator

D.

BusinessPartner

Question 22

Which two statements correctly describe the mandatory requirements to set up a Small Community Network (SCN) consisting of four IP500v2 control units, which must adhere to specific guidelines for seamless integration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The extension, user, and group numbering on each system must be unique to avoid conflicts.

B.

The user and group names on each system must be unique for easy identification.

C.

Combo Cards are required in all systems to ensure compatibility.

D.

The underlying network must be configured as a flat layer 2 subnet for optimal performance.

E.

The total number of users within the Small Community Network must not exceed 500 for efficient management.

Question 23

Given an IP Phone that is not working, which of the following is an example of "Top-Down Troubleshooting"?

Options:

A.

Validate that the gateway IP address is present in the IP Phone configuration.

B.

Attempt to ping the IP Phone and make a call if the ping is successful.

C.

Replace the patch cord of the IP Phone, and if it boots up, make a call.

D.

Check for an indicator light where the IP Phone is connected and listen for a dial tone.

Question 24

A customer requests to hear a secondary dial-tone when making outgoing calls. Where is this function enabled?

Options:

A.

User Telephony

B.

Short Code

C.

ARS table

D.

System Telephony

Question 25

What is the recommended method for adding new users to an IP Office Server Edition in Select mode, ensuring efficient management?

Options:

A.

Manually with copy and paste

B.

Using the Outlook Plugin

C.

With UMS and LDAP

D.

With the IP Office Manager Application and custom scripts

Question 26

On an Avaya IP Office™ 500V2 system, which application can be used to display the size of the configuration that is currently loaded into the Control Unit?

Options:

A.

Web Manager Application

B.

System Monitor Application

C.

System Status Application

D.

WebLM Application

Question 27

The supervisor of the support hunt group needs to review the call recordings made for this group, but currently only has access to recorded calls for the supervisor’s own account.

To allow reviewing of the support hunt group recordings, what needs to be done?

Options:

A.

Using the Manager application, edit the User by enabling “Replay All Recordings” and adding the support group to the “Replay Recordings For” list on the User Portal tab.

B.

Using the Manager application, edit the User by enabling “Replay All Recordings” and add the support group to the “Replay Recordings For” list on the Voice Recording tab.

C.

Using the Manager application, edit the Support group by adding the user to the “Replay Recordings” list on the Members tab.

D.

Using the Manager application, edit the support group by enabling “Replay All Recordings” and adding the user to the “Replay Recordings For” list on the Voice Recording tab.

Question 28

A law enforcement organization wants to enable full-time automated authenticated recordings of speech from people calling an anonymous tip line, which is included as an option in their auto attendant. What are the two essential steps required to set up Avaya Contact Recorder to achieve this objective? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Create a user for the Tip Line calls with necessary privileges.

B.

Configure a Tip Line folder in the Voicemail Pro drive with appropriate access controls.

C.

Select the time profile for Recording with suitable policies.

D.

Create a short code to start and stop recording with proper authorization.

E.

Set the recording destination to VRLA with encryption and integrity protection.

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Suppose you have configured enough SIP channels to carry the expected communications load, but some users report that they cannot call out, and callers cannot get through. Given the exhibit, which configuration setting is responsible for the problem?

Options:

A.

The system is misconfigured to ignore refresh messages.

B.

Caller ID is not passed by some carriers.

C.

Calls are being referred incorrectly.

D.

The timer should be set to 2 minutes.

Question 30

Select the two valid methods for sending voicemails to email using Voicemail Pro:

Options:

A.

TAPI and SMTP

B.

SNMP and MAPI

C.

Outlook and SNMP

D.

TAPI and Outlook

E.

SMTP and MAPI

Question 31

Which tool can be used after the ignition process is completed to configure initial settings for System, VoIP, Voicemail, Users, and more in a step-by-step manner?

Options:

A.

Management Wizard

B.

Configuration Wizard

C.

Management Tool

D.

Configuration Tools

Question 32

When creating a Short Code that is to connect to a Start Point on the modules in Voicemail Pro, which short code feature can be used?

Options:

A.

Voicemail Call Flow

B.

Start Point Node

C.

Voicemail On

D.

Voicemail Collect

Question 33

Which two profile licenses, that are used for user configuration, can support the Avaya Workplace client for Desktop (Desktop/Tablet VoIP client)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Office Worker User

B.

Power User

C.

Basic User

D.

Remote Worker User

Question 34

What is the required feature of the web browser to access Web Voicemail, which poses potential security risks due to its ability to execute arbitrary code?

Options:

A.

ActiveX

B.

VoiceMail Plug-In enabled

C.

Adobe Reader installed

D.

JavaScript disabled

Question 35

When you erase security settings and set them back to default, which three passwords will you be prompted to change?

Options:

A.

Administrator Password

B.

Security Password

C.

User Password

D.

System Password

E.

Voicemail Pro Password

Question 36

Which configuration area must be configured for the Hot Desking user?

Options:

A.

Services

B.

Extension

C.

User Rights

D.

Telephony-Supervisor Settings

Question 37

Which Configuration tile within the Configuration Wizard, must be populated first, before any other tiles can be seen?

Options:

A.

Users

B.

Status

C.

Ignite

D.

System

Question 38

A customer’s main number is routed to the destination VM: Main in the incoming call route menu.

Where should you now look to see the routing of these calls?

Options:

A.

Users

B.

Hunt Groups

C.

Auto Attendant menu

D.

Voicemail Pro modules

Question 39

A customer is experiencing poor call quality, including delay, jitter, and packet loss, when using a remote deskphone through the WAN. Which three methods can a technician use to help diagnose and troubleshoot the problem? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Perform a packet capture and analysis of the WAN traffic using a network analyzer tool.

B.

Compare the WAN bandwidth usage during call setup and active call phases to determine if there are any bandwidth limitations.

C.

Configure a VPN connection to the remote site to bypass WAN congestion and improve voice quality.

D.

Enable and monitor SNMP traps on the WAN routers to detect any network or connectivity issues.

E.

Check the network performance metrics, such as latency and round-trip time, to identify any abnormal values.

Question 40

A user from a remote IP Office site contacts you to discuss a voicemail issue. You use the Manager program to check the multi-site IP Office network, but only your local IP Office is displayed. What could be the reason for this issue?

Options:

A.

The Unit/Broadcast address is set to 255.255.255.255.

B.

No SCN users are available.

C.

The remote sites are undergoing a reboot.

D.

Your login credentials are incorrect.

Question 41

After a failure of the original Primary Avaya IP Office™ server, a restore needs to be applied to a replacement Avaya IP Office™ server.

To generate a successful restore of the backup made of the original server, which two criteria should the replacement server have? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

a temporary IP address that does not match the IP of the original server

B.

the same IP address as the original server

C.

the same software version installed on it as the original server

D.

the same system name as the original server

Question 42

You have changed the default port numbers for UDP, TCP and TLS in the Avaya IP Office™ to support a SIP Remote Worker.

On which two additional items do you need to change the port numbers as well? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Manager PC

B.

Network topology

C.

Internet Router/Firewall

D.

Client device

Question 43

In a new deployment of Avaya Communicator, a user can make calls, but the Presence and Instant Messaging features are not functioning. Which of the following is the reason for the user's inability to use these features?

Options:

A.

The user's profile has not been correctly configured.

B.

The new codecs are not supported by the system.

C.

The user is not set up as an agent in the system.

D.

The IP Office is configured with the Essential Edition only.

Question 44

When saving a configuration after making changes using the Manager Application, you get a warning that your configuration has errors.

Which step is needed to see the errors that are causing this warning message?

Options:

A.

In the Manager application, click on Solution to view the System Summary page and look for errors with a red circle with X icon in the list.

B.

In the Manager application, ensure that you have the Error List pane enabled and look for lines with a yellow triangle with exclamation icon in the list.

C.

In the Manager application, ensure that you have the Error List pane enabled and look for lines with a red circle with X icon in the list.

D.

Use the System Monitor application to view the configuration errors.

Question 45

A customer wants all users to import their Outlook contacts into their one-X Portal personal directories. What is the recommended way for users to achieve this?

Options:

A.

Notify the customer that this is not a recommended practice.

B.

Use a .csv format to import the Outlook contacts.

C.

Add each Outlook contact individually to the personal directory.

D.

Copy and paste all contacts from Outlook into the personal directory.

Question 46

In an installation of Server Edition, as well as the IP Office, the Voicemail Pro and one-X® Portal are also installed at the same time. Therefore, by default they should both be running.

Which application would NOT be useful to check if they are in fact up and running?

Options:

A.

Voicemail Pro Windows Client

B.

System Status Application

C.

Web Manager

D.

Manager Application

Question 47

What is the additional security measure required for upgrading the IP Office 500 V2 using the Upgrade Wizard?

Options:

A.

Biometric authentication

B.

Firewall authentication

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Captcha authentication

Question 48

Which statement about Manager used in conjunction with Server Edition is true?

Options:

A.

It can be installed from either the Admin DVD or Web Control (https:// :7071)

B.

It can only be installed from the Admin DVD

C.

It can be installed from either the Admin DVD or Web Manager (https:// :7070)

D.

It is not compatible with Server Edition, and you must use Web Manager to configure the system.

Question 49

Upon plugging in a new IP500 V2 device, the dashboard displays two ports in one of the modules to be green, even though no telephones are connected. What could be the reason behind it?

Options:

A.

The chassis contains a Combo Card.

B.

The operating system is operational, and an administrator is configuring the system.

C.

The device has passed self-test and is powered on.

D.

Both LAN1 and LAN2 connections are disconnected.

Question 50

You have purchased a pre-configured Avaya Application Server, which includes Voicemail Pro and one-X® Portal applications. You need to verify if both applications are running. Which application should you use, and what steps would you take to confirm the status of the applications?

Options:

A.

Web Manager Application, navigate to the System Status > Applications menu and check for the status of Voicemail Pro and one-X® Portal.

B.

Monitor Application, check the status of the applications on the home screen dashboard.

C.

Manager Application, navigate to the Server > Applications menu and check the status of Voicemail Pro and one-X® Portal.

D.

Application Server, log in and run a command to check the status of the applications.

Question 51

When a voicemail message is left for a user, and if the customer is using Embedded Voicemail, where are the voice files held?

Options:

A.

on the User PC

B.

on the voicemail server

C.

on the Application Server

D.

on the System SD card

Question 52

A customer asks you to create a Hunt group on an existing Avaya IP Office™ 500V2 system for the main incoming number. The group will have four members, and an incoming call will ring for all members at once. They should also get a visual indication that a call is waiting.

Which Ring Mode should be selected?

Options:

A.

Collective Call Waiting

B.

Sequential

C.

Collective

D.

Rotary Call waiting

Question 53

What can be used to access the Avaya IP Office™ security settings?

Options:

A.

Manager Application

B.

System Status Application

C.

User Portal

D.

Monitor Application

Question 54

Which three statements about Avaya IP Office™ Server Edition (non-Select) are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It can be upgraded to the Select version.

B.

It is a software-based solution.

C.

It requires a primary and secondary server.

D.

It can be expanded to support 2.000 users in non-Select.

E.

It must have an Avava IP Office™ 500V2 Gateway to support SIP trunks.

Question 55

Where is the TCP Streaming Tool located?

Options:

A.

In the System Status Application (SSA)

B.

In the Monitor Application

C.

In the Manager Application

D.

In the Web Manager Application

Question 56

Which application will enable users to access their own recordings from within Media Manager?

Options:

A.

Web Client

B.

Voice Recording Client

C.

Workplace Client

D.

User Portal

Question 57

A customer has a requirement to restrict users from dialing international numbers. What is the most efficient way to enforce this policy?

Options:

A.

Apply a short code to each individual user's dial plan.

B.

Configure a system-wide short code to block international calls.

C.

Associate a restricted dialing right with each user's profile.

D.

Assign a short code to each external line to block international calls.

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Total 190 questions