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BCS ISEB-PM1 BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management Exam Practice Test

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Total 625 questions

BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Constraints do not include:

Options:

A.

Expected staff assignments

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Organizational structure of the performing organization

D.

Impacts of weather

Question 2

Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one after the other or at the same time.

Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when product requirements are subject to rapid change?

Options:

A.

Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other

B.

Overlapping the delivery phases

C.

Delivering the products iteratively

D.

Delivering all of the product at the same time

Question 3

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question 4

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

Options:

A.

25.0

B.

22.5

C.

27.5

D.

30.0

Question 5

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures.

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources.

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses.

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal.

Question 6

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-Location

Question 7

Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Question 8

All of the following are true regarding Communications Planning except for which one?

Options:

A.

Communications requirements analysis, communications technology, and PMIS are tools and techniques of this process.

B.

It's the only output of the Communications Planning process.

C.

It's tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors and organizational influences, and lessons learned and historical information are two inputs that should get a lot of attention during this process.

D.

It should be completed as early in the project phases as possible.

Question 9

What is a cost of nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Rework

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Testing

Question 10

The risk of accepting a lot of poor quality, in acceptance sampling, is referred to as:

Options:

A.

type I error

B.

producer's risk

C.

consumer's risk

D.

buyer's risk

E.

consumer's risk and type I error

Question 11

The most common form of written project communication is

Options:

A.

Bulletin boards

B.

All of the other alternatives apply

C.

Publications

D.

Letters and memos

E.

Reports

Question 12

You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of scope definition.

Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this?

Options:

A.

The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.

B.

The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.

C.

The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, and costs will increase.

D.

The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.

Question 13

In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price Plus Incentive

B.

Firm Fixed Price Contract and Fixed Price Plus Incentive

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract

D.

Cost Plus Percentage of Cost

E.

Cost Plus Fixed Price

Question 14

Sally is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Only three manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Sally needs. The price of this machine is particularly critical to this project. The budget is limited, and there's no chance of securing additional funds if the bids for the machine come in higher than budgeted.

She's developing the evaluation criteria for the bidders' responses and knows all of the following are true except for which one?

Options:

A.

Sally will review the project management plan, including the risk register, as inputs to this process.

B.

Sally will base the evaluation criteria on price alone since the budget is a constraint.

C.

Sally will update the contract statement of work with any new information.

D.

Sally will use standard contract forms provided by her procurement department to write the contract for this machine.

Question 15

What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed?

Options:

A.

Work product

B.

Work package

C.

Project deliverable

D.

Scope baseline

Question 16

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success.

Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Functional manager supported by the project manager

D.

Project management office

Question 17

The sponsor has informed you that the resources for your project will be cut. The sponsor wants to know how long the project will take if only nine resources each month are committed to your project.

What is this activity called?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Floating

C.

Leveling

D.

Fast tracking

Question 18

What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?

Options:

A.

All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers.

B.

All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.

C.

Teams are co-located.

D.

The organization is focused on projects and project work.

Question 19

Make payment to seller is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 20

The project manager has performed schedule network analysis, compressed the schedule, and completed a Monte Carlo analysis.

What time management activity should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Update resource requirements

B.

Recommend corrective actions

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Create a milestone list

Question 21

How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

Options:

A.

5

B.

8

C.

9

D.

12

Question 22

Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Project charter

C.

Preliminary project scope statement

D.

Communications management plan

Question 23

Communication in both project and non-project-driven organizations should occur in __________ directions.

Options:

A.

four

B.

one

C.

two

D.

three

E.

five

Question 24

On what is project baseline development established?

Options:

A.

Approved product requirements

B.

Estimated project cost and schedule

C.

Actual project cost and schedule

D.

Revised project cost and schedule

Question 25

The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract. Each month the sponsor requires the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an analysis of the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor that extra profits should NOT be a worry on this project because:

Options:

A.

The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope.

B.

All costs invoiced are being audited.

C.

There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if there is an unexpected cost overrun.

D.

The fee is only received by the seller when the project is completed.

Question 26

The estimated cost to complete (ETC) is _____.

Options:

A.

BCWP/ACWP

B.

the forecasted and final cost - cost to date

C.

None of the other alternatives apply

D.

Total estimate - ACWP

E.

(ACWP-BCWP)/BCWP * 100

Question 27

A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:

Options:

A.

Create a project scope statement.

B.

Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.

C.

Analyze project risk.

D.

Begin work on a project management plan.

Question 28

Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management information system (PMIS)

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Scheduled network analysis

Question 29

A computer tape which contains historical project information is called ____ tape.

Options:

A.

Database

B.

Archive.

C.

Lessons learned.

D.

Baseline.

E.

Life cycle summary.

Question 30

The following reports are normally developed during the project closure phase?

Options:

A.

None of the other alternatives apply

B.

Communications Management Plan and Lessons Learned

C.

Records Archive, Closure Report, & Specifications Document

D.

Records Archive, Closure Report, lessons learned & Formal Acceptance Report

E.

Communications Management Plan and Closure report

Question 31

All of the following statements are true regarding the RBS except for which one?

Options:

A.

The RBS is similar to the WBS in that the lowest levels of both are easily assigned to a responsible party or owner.

B.

The RBS is contained in the risk management plan.

C.

The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a checklist, which is a tool and technique of the Risk Identification process.

D.

It describes risk categories, which are a systematic way to identify risks and provide a foundation for understanding for everyone involved on the project.

Question 32

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Question 33

You have assembled your thoughts into a message. As you pass this information to a second party, you are giving this person you’re:

Options:

A.

Input and Data

B.

Feedback

C.

Data

D.

Output

E.

Input

Question 34

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV = $500

PV= $750

AC= $1000

BAC= $1200

Options:

A.

0.67

B.

1.50

C.

0.75

D.

0.50

Question 35

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Group decision making techniques

B.

Project management information system

C.

Alternative identification

D.

Communication requirement analysis

Question 36

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

Question 37

Which one of the following is not an acquisition method?

Options:

A.

negotiation

B.

invitation

C.

purchase

D.

advertising

E.

all are acquisition methods

Question 38

Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Create WBS

B.

Define Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Verify Scope

Question 39

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Question 40

Which of the following must not performed in the project initiation process?

Options:

A.

Evaluate historical information

B.

List down business need

C.

List down stakeholders

D.

Create scope statement

Question 41

Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Work breakdown structure

Question 42

Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communication management plan

C.

Requested changes

D.

Communication requirement plan

E.

Organizational Process Assets Updates

Question 43

Root Cause Analysis related to ________.

Options:

A.

Process Analysis

B.

Performance Measurements

C.

All of the other alternatives apply

D.

Quality Audits

Question 44

You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for an agency of the United States government. Your mission-should you choose to accept it-is to complete the project using internal resources. The reason is that finding contractors with top-secret clearances takes quite a bit of time, and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your programmers are 80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a new executive director. Slowly but surely your programmers are taken off this project and reassigned to the executive director's hot new project.

Which of the following type of project ending is this?

Options:

A.

Extinction

B.

Starvation

C.

Addition

D.

Integration

Question 45

Which of the following is the LEAST effective way to influence the factors that create changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Review the project scope with the functional manager responsible for the greatest number of requested changes.

B.

Explain to those requesting changes the negative impact of change to the project.

C.

Eliminate the scope causing the most changes.

D.

Notify all stakeholders that no more changes will be allowed.

Question 46

You are working with XYZ organization. Your senior manager imposed new delivery date which is earlier than mentioned project deliverables date in scope statement.

To whom you are most accountable?

Options:

A.

customer

B.

team member

C.

sponsor

D.

senior manager

Question 47

Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development?

Options:

A.

Storming

B.

Forming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Question 48

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 49

What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers become more involved.

Question 50

Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Decode

C.

Pull

D.

Duration

Question 51

Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

Options:

A.

To identify quality requirements of the project

B.

To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C.

To assess performance and recommend necessary changes

D.

To ensure quality standards are used

Question 52

You are the project manager for a new website for the local zoo. You need to perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

When you've completed this process, you'll produce all of the following as part of the risk register update output except which one?

Options:

A.

Probability of achieving time and cost estimates

B.

Watch list of low-priority risks

C.

Priority list of risks

D.

Risks grouped by categories

Question 53

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

Options:

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

Question 54

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Performance Reporting process except which one?

Options:

A.

Performance measurements

B.

Information presentation tools

C.

Time reporting systems

D.

Cost reporting systems

Question 55

Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the planning process group?

Options:

A.

Update corporate processes and procedures based on lessons learned.

B.

Evaluate the effectiveness of risk responses.

C.

Recommend changes and defect repair.

D.

Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria.

Question 56

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities?

Options:

A.

Schedule development

B.

Activity sequencing

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Question 57

Which of the following is generally the MOST CORRECT use of a project network diagram?

Options:

A.

Showing the project schedule

B.

Documenting activity interdependencies

C.

Defining project resources

D.

Defining the project costs

Question 58

Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Question 59

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Question 60

While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule variance is -500.

What is the BEST thing to do?

Options:

A.

Let the sponsor know.

B.

Determine the cost variance.

C.

Look for activities that can be done in parallel.

D.

Move resources from the project to one that is not failing.

Question 61

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project sponsors

C.

Project management team

D.

Insurance claims department

Question 62

Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 63

You are negotiating with a seller. Time is of the essence but you have a limited budget, and the seller knows this.

What is your BEST negotiating strategy under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Focus the negotiation on seller's profit margin in order to decrease the project cost.

B.

Negotiate to get the work done even sooner than necessary in order to add a reserve.

C.

Negotiate identified risks.

D.

Arrange to reschedule the negotiation until you can acquire information of which the seller is not aware.

Question 64

During what process is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Question 65

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 66

Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 67

In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1.

For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:

Options:

A.

is under control.

B.

is out of control.

C.

has an increasing trend.

D.

has a decreasing trend.

Question 68

Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

Options:

A.

Analogous Estimating

B.

Expert Judgment

C.

Optimistic Estimates

D.

Reserve Analysis

Question 69

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop project management plan

B.

Develop project charter

C.

Develop preliminary project scope statement

D.

Scope planning

Question 70

In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost, schedule and scope changes.

Options:

A.

cost plus incentive fee

B.

cost plus incentive fee and firm fixed price

C.

firm fixed price

D.

cost plus fixed fee

E.

unit price

Question 71

You are the project manager of a project. You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope.

What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Create WBS

C.

Value analysis

D.

Verify Scope

Question 72

Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project?

Options:

A.

Requirements, influence, and functional department

B.

Interest, requirements, and functional role

C.

Requirements, expectations, and influence

D.

Interest, expectations, and influence

Question 73

A line manager who is asked to wear two hats and function as a project manager at the same time is likely to exercise:

Options:

A.

All of the other alternatives apply.

B.

Influence

C.

Power

D.

Authority and Power

E.

Authority

Question 74

The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is ___________.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Template estimating

C.

Computerized estimating

D.

Square foot estimating

Question 75

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Question 76

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

Options:

A.

Critical path

B.

Rolling Wave

C.

PDM

D.

Parametric

Question 77

You are a contract project manager working with the State of Bliss. Your latest project involves rewriting the Department of Revenue's income tax system. As project manager, you have taken all the appropriate actions regarding confidentiality of data. One of the key stakeholders is a huge movie buff, and she has the power to promote you into a better position at the conclusion of this project. She's reviewing some report data that just happens to include confidential information regarding one of her favorite movie superstars.

What is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

Do nothing, because she has the proper level of access rights to the data and this information showed up unintentionally.

B.

Request that she immediately return the information, citing conflict of interest and violation of confidential company data.

C.

Request that she immediately return the information until you can confirm that she has the proper level of access rights to the data.

D.

Report her to the management team.

Question 78

In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract?

Options:

A.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

B.

Cost-plus-incentive-fee

C.

Firm-fixed-price

D.

Fixed-price-incentive-fee

Question 79

You are a project manager working on gathering requirements and establishing estimates for the project.

Which process group are you in?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Executing

D.

Planning

Question 80

In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables?

Options:

A.

Fishbone diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Question 81

What is Project Portfolio Management?

Options:

A.

Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.

C.

Management of all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Question 82

The purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

control change during the production only

B.

control change throughout the project

C.

inform the project manager of changes

D.

generate engineering change proposals

E.

insure drawings are updated

Question 83

Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question 84

While creating the agenda for a status meeting with the team, a project manager receives input from one team member that an item should be added. Another team member says the team is not ready to resolve the item during the meeting. After much discussion, the project manager decides to put the item on the agenda as an initial discussion item only.

Which conflict resolution technique is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Forcing

D.

Withdrawal

Question 85

Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.

Options:

A.

None of the other alternatives apply

B.

analyze the reasons for variances

C.

establish the variances

D.

identify the problems

E.

All of the other alternatives apply.

Question 86

A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work.

What is the BEST solution for the project manager?

Options:

A.

Consult with the functional manager to determine project completion incentives for the team member.

B.

Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work.

C.

Arrange for the team member to get training.

D.

Allocate some of the project schedule reserve.

Question 87

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure update

C.

Project network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question 88

The Delphi Method is well-suited for:

Options:

A.

Decision-making

B.

All of the other alternatives apply

C.

Decision-making and Forecasting

D.

Forecasting

E.

Overhead rate estimating

Question 89

The management theory that all people can direct their own efforts is:

Options:

A.

Theory Y.

B.

Herzberg's theory.

C.

Maslow's hierarchy.

D.

Theory X.

Question 90

What is included in a control chart?

Options:

A.

Baseline

B.

Planned value

C.

Upper specification limit

D.

Expenditure

Question 91

The basic elements of communication include:

Options:

A.

Reading, writing and listening

B.

Communicator, encoding, message, medium, decoding, receiver, and feedback

C.

All of the other alternatives apply

D.

Clarity of speech and good listening habits

E.

Listening, talking and sign language.

Question 92

Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 93

Parametric estimates are based on variables such as:

Options:

A.

Project objectives and manpower allocations.

B.

Physical characteristics and historical data.

C.

Precise measurements and multiple inputs.

D.

The WBS and similar projects.

E.

Detailed planning and cost restraints.

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Total 625 questions