Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.
Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?
When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?
Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?
Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.
When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?
Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.
What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?
How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?
A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?
What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?
Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?
After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?
Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.
Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?
When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?
The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?
Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.
Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?
In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?
Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?
When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?
What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?
An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?
Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?
A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?
Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?
Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.
To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?
How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?
Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.
What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?
Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?
True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.
Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.
Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?
When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?
Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.
You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?
True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?
Which of the following is a valid deployment option?
Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?
Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?
An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?
What are the two elements of address translation rules?
In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?
Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.
After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?
The CDT utility supports which of the following?
Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?
In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?
What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”. cap”number of captures”?
Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?
Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?
An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?
The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.
When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?
Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.
Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?
Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?
Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?
How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?
Which one of the following is TRUE?
Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?
What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?
Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?
What SmartEvent component creates events?
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?
What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?
What is the main objective when using Application Control?
Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?
What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?
SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:
Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.
When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?
After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?
Choose what BEST describes a Session
Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?
Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?
Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.
Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?
Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?
In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?
John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?
R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:
Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?
What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.
Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client
To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?
AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.
Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?
Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?
Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.
Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?
Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?
In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?
SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?
What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?
What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)
How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?
Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?