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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Exam Practice Test

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Total 411 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 2

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Security Gateway container

C.

Management server

D.

Management container

Question 3

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Question 4

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.

Connection Cache

B.

State Cache

C.

State Table

D.

Network Table

Question 5

By default, which port is used to connect to the GAiA Portal?

Options:

A.

4434

B.

80

C.

8080

D.

443

Question 6

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Malware

D.

Content Awareness

Question 7

Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

Options:

A.

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

B.

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

C.

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

D.

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Question 8

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.

hostname myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Question 9

AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published

B.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the rule is currently being edited

C.

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available

D.

Rule is locked by AdminA because the save button has not been pressed

Question 10

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Question 11

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 12

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Central

C.

Corporate

D.

Local

Question 13

Which command shows the installed licenses?

Options:

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

Question 14

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

Question 15

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

Question 16

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

Question 17

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Microsoft Publisher

B.

JSON

C.

Microsoft Word

D.

RC4 Encryption

Question 18

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartLog

D.

SmartView Monitor

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 20

How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

Options:

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw monitor

D.

cpinfo

Question 21

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Question 22

How do you manage Gaia?

Options:

A.

Through CLI and WebUI

B.

Through CLI only

C.

Through SmartDashboard only

D.

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Question 23

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

Question 24

R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Options:

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Version R75 and higher

Question 25

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

Options:

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 26

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

Options:

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

Question 27

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Question 28

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

Question 29

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

Options:

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

Question 30

What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole’s tab, and the Install Policy within a specific policy?

Options:

A.

The Global one also saves and published the session before installation.

B.

The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.

C.

The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.

D.

The second one pre-select the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

Question 31

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

Options:

A.

Penalty Box

B.

Drop Rule in the rulebase

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

D.

Stealth rule

Question 32

When an Admin logs into SmartConsole and sees a lock icon on a gateway object and cannot edit that object, what does that indicate?

Options:

A.

The gateway is not powered on.

B.

Incorrect routing to reach the gateway.

C.

The Admin would need to login to Read-Only mode

D.

Another Admin has made an edit to that object and has yet to publish the change.

Question 33

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Options:

A.

The gateways can only send logs to an SMS and cannot send logs to a Log Server. Log Servers are proprietary log archive servers.

B.

Gateways will send new firewall logs to the new Log Server as soon as the SIC trust is set up between the SMS and the new Log Server.

C.

The firewalls will detect the new Log Server after the next policy install and redirect the new logs to the new Log Server.

D.

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server.

Question 34

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Access Control

C.

Desktop Security

D.

Threat Prevention

Question 35

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 36

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge

Question 37

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

Options:

A.

Active Directory Query

B.

User Directory Query

C.

Account Unit Query

D.

UserCheck

Question 38

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

Question 39

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 40

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

Radius

C.

DynamicID

D.

TACACS

Question 41

How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

Options:

A.

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

B.

They cannot be seen

C.

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

D.

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

Options:

A.

Custom

B.

Terminal

C.

Full

D.

Light

Question 43

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Question 44

Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

Options:

A.

User index

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

User server

Question 45

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

Options:

A.

IPS blade

B.

IPSEC VPN Blade

C.

Identity Awareness Blade

D.

Firewall Blade

Question 46

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

Question 47

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Question 48

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Three

C.

Two

D.

Infinite

Question 49

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 50

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Options:

A.

Access Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Threat Prevention

D.

QoS

Question 51

Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

Options:

A.

675, 389

B.

389, 636

C.

636, 290

D.

290, 675

Question 52

What is the SOLR database for?

Options:

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Question 53

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.

8080

B.

80

C.

4434

D.

443

Question 54

The SIC Status “Unknown” means

Options:

A.

There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.

B.

The secure communication is established.

C.

There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.

D.

The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC.

Question 55

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Question 56

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

Question 57

Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Static; source

B.

Simple; source

C.

Hide; destination

D.

Hide; source

Question 58

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

Options:

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

Question 59

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Question 60

The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Options:

A.

Major version upgrades to R77.30

B.

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

C.

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

D.

All upgrades

Question 61

Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Options:

A.

All options stop Check Point processes

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

snapshot

Question 62

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Question 63

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

Options:

A.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

B.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

C.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

D.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

Question 64

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Question 65

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

Question 66

What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Options:

A.

Verification tool

B.

Verification licensing

C.

Automatic licensing

D.

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

Question 67

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Question 68

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _____.

Options:

A.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

B.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

C.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

D.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

Question 69

Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Save Policy

B.

Install Database

C.

Save session

D.

Install Policy

Question 70

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Options:

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

Question 71

Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

Options:

A.

259, 900

B.

256, 257

C.

8080, 529

D.

80, 256

Question 72

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

Question 73

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

Question 74

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

Question 75

You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

Options:

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

Question 76

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 77

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

Security questions

D.

SecurID

Question 78

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

Question 79

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

Question 80

Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

Options:

A.

DLP shared policy

B.

Geo policy shared policy

C.

Mobile Access software blade

D.

HTTPS inspection

Question 81

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Options:

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Question 82

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Clish

B.

Admin

C.

Normal

D.

Expert

Question 83

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

Question 84

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

Options:

A.

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

B.

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

C.

Track log column is set to none.

D.

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

Question 85

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

Question 86

Aggressive Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

depends on the make of the peer gateway

D.

5

Question 87

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Options:

A.

cphaprob state

B.

cphaprob status

C.

cphaprob

D.

cluster state

Question 88

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.

Shared Secret Passwords

B.

Unique Passwords

C.

Shared User Certificates

D.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

Question 89

What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Options:

A.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

B.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

C.

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

D.

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

Question 90

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

Question 91

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

Question 92

Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Data Awareness

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

Threat Emulation

Question 93

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

Question 94

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

Options:

A.

add users to your Gaia system.

B.

assign privileges to users.

C.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

D.

edit the home directory of the user.

Question 95

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 96

You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Options:

A.

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

B.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

C.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

D.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

Question 97

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Options:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

Question 98

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Question 99

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Question 100

When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

Options:

A.

Log, send snmp trap, email

B.

Drop packet, alert, none

C.

Log, alert, none

D.

Log, allow packets, email

Question 101

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

C.

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

D.

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Question 102

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

Question 103

You had setup the VPN Community NPN-Stores' with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(l .1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways.

Options:

A.

action:”Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Quick Mode

B.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

C.

action:”Key Install” AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

D.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

Question 104

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

Question 105

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

Question 106

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Question 107

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Question 108

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Options:

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

Question 109

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

B.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

C.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

D.

The Gaia operating system only.

Question 110

Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection tracks state using two tables, one for incoming traffic and one for outgoing traffic

B.

Stateful Inspection looks at both the headers of packets, as well as deeply examining their content.

C.

Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection's state

D.

Stateful Inspection requires two rules, one for outgoing traffic and one for incoming traffic.

Question 111

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

It manages user permission in SmartConsole

B.

It provides remote access to SmartConsole

C.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources

D.

It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Question 112

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Options:

A.

Different computers or appliances.

B.

The same computer or appliance.

C.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

D.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

Question 113

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Question 114

What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

High Performance

B.

Good Security

C.

No Screening above Network layer

D.

Transparency

Question 115

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Question 116

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

Options:

A.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_di and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks

B.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.

C.

Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring

D.

All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

Question 117

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

Options:

A.

show cluster state

B.

show active cluster

C.

show clusters

D.

show running cluster

Question 118

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

Question 119

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Options:

A.

Eyeglasses

B.

Pencil

C.

Padlock

D.

Book

Question 120

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup. or SmartConsole

B.

WebUI. CLI. or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI. SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartConsole, WebUI. or CLI

Question 121

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

Options:

A.

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

B.

cp.macro

C.

Contract file (.xml)

D.

license File (.lie)

Question 122

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

Options:

A.

User ID 1

B.

User ID 2

C.

User ID 0

D.

User ID 99

Question 123

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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