CISI ICWIM International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Exam Practice Test

Defined Benefit Pension Scheme:

This scheme provides a fixed, pre-determined income in retirement based on factors like years of service and final salary.

The employer assumes the investment and longevity risks, ensuring predictability for the employee.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Contributions may be required from the employee, depending on the plan.

B: Index-linking to inflation is a feature of some schemes but not universal.

D: Investment performance is not guaranteed but managed by the employer.

References:

ICWIM Module 5: Discussion on pension types and benefits.

Risk Appetite and Portfolio Composition

A portfolio primarily of bonds and cash indicates a conservative approach, but the inclusion of equities and higher-risk investments suggests some tolerance for risk.

A 15-year time horizon allows for a balanced approach, mitigating risks associated with equities over time.

Why the Answer is B

The mix of low-risk (bonds, cash) and some high-risk exposure (equities) aligns withLow-Mid Risk.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Low Risk: Overlooks the equity and higher-risk components.

C. Mid Risk / D. Mid-High Risk: Overestimate the risk level due to the dominance of bonds and cash.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Profiling: Explains portfolio risk classification.

References

Know Your Customer (KYC)

A regulatory process requiring firms to collect sufficient information about a client to ensure advice is appropriate.

It involves understanding the client’s financial situation, goals, and risk tolerance.

Why the Answer is D

Establishing sufficient client details is the essence of KYC. It ensures compliance with regulations and prevents mis-selling.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Suitability and affordability: Part of KYC but does not encompass all aspects.

B. Attitude to risk: A component of KYC but not the full procedure.

C. Status disclosure: Refers to informing the client about the advisor’s regulatory status, not client profiling.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Regulatory Compliance: Details KYC as a cornerstone of financial advice.

FCA Guidelines: KYC is a mandatory process in the UK’s financial services.

ReferencesThus, the correct answer isD. Following know your customer procedures.

Compound Interest Formula:A=P×(1+r)nA = P \times (1 + r)^nA=P×(1+r)n

P: Initial principal (£1,000)

r: Annual interest rate (3% or 0.03)

n: Number of years (5)A=1,000×(1+0.03)5A = 1,000 \times (1 + 0.03)^5A=1,000×(1+0.03)5A=1,000×(1.159274)A = 1,000 \times (1.159274)A=1,000×(1.159274)A=£1,157.63A = £1,157.63A=£1,157.63

Elimination of Other Options:

All other values result from incorrect application of the formula or ignoring compounding.

References:

ICWIM Module 2: Focus on time value of money and compounding.

Role of a Central Counterparty (CCP):

A CCP acts as a mediator in financial transactions, ensuring stability and reducing counterparty risk.

By becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer, the CCP ensures that trades are completed even if one party defaults.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: CCP does not guarantee no default but mitigates its impact.

C: Market making involves liquidity provision, not CCP's role.

D: CCP does not provide funding but manages trade clearing.

References:

ICWIM Module 5: Explanation of trade clearing mechanisms and the CCP’s role.

An increase in earnings per share (EPS) indicates improved profitability on a per-share basis. This enhances the company’s ability to distribute dividends to shareholders, assuming a consistent payout ratio.

Widened share base (A): This would typically dilute EPS, not increase it.

Market share (C): Market share is unrelated to EPS; it is about the company’s competitive position.

P/E ratio (D): While EPS affects valuation, a rise in EPS does not guarantee a P/E increase.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Financial ratios and their implications.

EPS as a metric of profitability and dividend-paying capacity.

Importance of Prioritizing Protection Needs:

The process ensures that the client's financial risks (e.g., loss of income, health issues) are addressed effectively within their budget.

Affordability is crucial to ensuring the plan can be implemented and sustained long-term.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Establishing net worth is important but unrelated to prioritizing protection needs.

B: A benchmark is not the focus of protection planning.

C: The primary goal is the client’s protection, not the firm’s risk.

References:

ICWIM Module 2: Emphasis on understanding client affordability and agreeing on realistic financial plans.

Sharpe Ratio Defined

The Sharpe ratio measuresrisk-adjusted return, specifically the excess return over the risk-free rate per unit of volatility.

Formula: Sharpe Ratio=Portfolio Return - Risk-Free RateStandard Deviation of Portfolio Returns\text{Sharpe Ratio} = \frac{\text{Portfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate}}{\text{Standard Deviation of Portfolio Returns}}Sharpe Ratio=Standard Deviation of Portfolio ReturnsPortfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate​

Why the Answer is B

The ratio quantifies the return generated for each unit of risk taken, relative to the risk-free rate.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Benchmark performance: The Sharpe ratio does not measure performance relative to a benchmark.

C. Annual charge effect: Unrelated to fund expenses.

D. Manager ability: Focuses on risk-adjusted returns, not managerial skill.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk-Adjusted Metrics: Explains the Sharpe ratio.

Portfolio Management Literature: Highlights its use in assessing performance.

ReferencesThus, the correct answer isB. Return above a risk-free rate.

Global Currency Trading

The US dollar dominates the foreign exchange market due to its status as the global reserve currency.

It is heavily used in international trade, financial transactions, and as a benchmark currency.

Market Share

The US dollar is involved in approximately88% of all forex trades.

Other currencies like the euro, Japanese yen, and British pound have significant market shares but are far behind the US dollar.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Global Financial Markets: Highlights the US dollar as the most traded currency.

Bank for International Settlements (BIS)Forex Market Surveys: Confirms trading dominance of the US dollar.

References

Market risk, also known as systematic risk, affects the entire market and cannot be eliminated through diversification. Examples include economic recessions, geopolitical events, or market-wide changes in interest rates.

Currency risk (A): Can be diversified through exposure to multiple currencies.

Credit risk (B): Can be mitigated by spreading exposure across various credit profiles.

Liquidity risk (C): Can be addressed by diversifying into liquid assets.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Types of risk and strategies to mitigate them.

Modern Portfolio Theory and the distinction between systematic and unsystematic risk.

Why Affordability is the Major Constraint

A client’s ability to mitigate risks is directly limited by their financial resources.

Even the most sophisticated risk strategies, such as diversification, derivatives, or insurance, require financial capacity.

Other Options Analyzed

Age: Impacts risk tolerance but does not constrain the financial ability to manage risks.

Risk aversion: A behavioral factor, not a financial constraint.

Tax implications: Important but secondary compared to affordability.

ICWIM Textbook, Chapter on Investment Constraints: Highlights affordability as the top financial constraint.

Wealth Planning Principles: Discusses practical limitations of risk mitigation strategies.

ReferencesThus, the answer isB. Affordability.

Treasury Bills Defined

Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government debt securities issued at a discount and redeemed at face value at maturity.

They are typically issued with maturities of3 months (most common), 6 months, and 1 year.

Why the Answer is B

While T-bills can have shorter or longer maturities,3 monthsis the standard minimum maturity for most markets, including the UK and US.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Fixed Income Securities: Covers treasury bill characteristics.

Debt Market Literature: Confirms typical T-bill maturities.

References

Equities are often used to hedge against inflation because they represent ownership in real assets that can grow in value. Companies generally have the ability to pass on inflationary costs to consumers, which can preserve or enhance their profitability and the equity value.

Lower cost (B): Equities may incur higher transaction and management costs than other asset classes.

Align liabilities (C): While equities offer returns, liability alignment is more relevant to fixed-income assets.

Low volatility (D): Equities are more volatile than bonds or cash, making this statement incorrect.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Equities as inflation hedges and their risk/reward profile.

Historical analysis of equity performance in inflationary periods.

What is an Accumulation and Maintenance Trust?

This is a trust designed primarily for minors or young beneficiaries.

Trustees have discretion over income and capital distributionsuntil a specified event or age, after which the discretion typically ceases.

When Does Discretion Cease?

Generally, trustees' discretion ends at theend of a prescribed periodor when the beneficiary reaches a predetermined age, often 18 or 25.

This ensures the trust complies with legal requirements, such as therule against perpetuitiesin some jurisdictions.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Trusts: Details the rules around accumulation and maintenance trusts.

Trust Law Principles: Highlights limitations of trustee discretion.

References

Passive fund managers can use synthetic replication to track an index through derivatives like swaps. In this arrangement, the fund agrees to pay a pre-defined return (e.g., LIBOR or a fixed rate) to a counterparty in exchange for the counterparty delivering the total return of the index. This approach allows the fund to replicate index performance without holding the physical securities, reducing costs and eliminating tracking error.

What is a Benchmark?

A benchmark is a standard against which the performance of a portfolio is measured.

Common benchmarks include stock indices like the S&P 500 or FTSE 100.

Why a Custom Benchmark is Required

When a portfolio spansseveral different asset classes, such as equities, fixed income, and alternative investments, a single pre-defined benchmark may not be sufficient.

A custom benchmark aligns with the specific composition and strategy of the portfolio, ensuring that performance is evaluated accurately.

Key Reason for Custom Benchmark

It reflects thediversity and allocationof the portfolio across asset classes.

Example: If a portfolio is 50% equity, 30% fixed income, and 20% real estate, the benchmark must reflect this mix, combining indices like MSCI World, Bloomberg Barclays Bond Index, and a real estate index.

ICWIM Study Material, Chapter on Performance Measurement: Highlights the necessity for custom benchmarks in multi-asset portfolios.

CFA Institute Standards: Custom benchmarks are required for complex portfolios spanning various classes.

ReferencesThus, the answer isD. The portfolio spans several different asset classes.

What is Back-End Loading?

A fee structure where costs are charged when an investor sells out of an investment, typically in mutual funds or other collective investments.

Why the Answer is B

Collective investments, such as mutual funds, frequently use back-end loads as a way to encourage long-term investment.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Bonds: Fees are not typically structured as back-end loads.

C. Equities: Equities do not have fee structures similar to back-end loads.

D. Real estate: Transaction costs in real estate are upfront, not back-end.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Collective Investments: Discusses fee structures, including back-end loading.

Investment Fund Literature: Explains back-end loads as a feature of mutual funds.

References

In an order-driven market, an electronic order book is used to match buy and sell orders based on strict price and time priority. This system ensures transparency and fair pricing since all orders are visible to market participants.

Risk Tolerance Defined

Risk tolerance is the degree of variability in investment returns that an investor is willing to withstand.

Pillars of Risk Tolerance

Psychological Traits: Key determinants of how much risk an individual can emotionally handle.

Includes traits like optimism, pessimism, and loss aversion.

Other Factors (Secondary): Experience, education, and financial goals play roles, but they do not directly "underlie" the core risk tolerance.

Example

Two investors with identical knowledge and experience may have different risk tolerances due to differing psychological profiles.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Profiling: Highlights psychological traits as the foundation of risk tolerance.

Behavioral Finance Theory: Psychological biases and emotional traits shape risk appetite.

ReferencesThus, the correct answer isA. Psychological traits.

A recommendation report for a client should contain comprehensive details of their existing financial arrangements. This ensures that advice aligns with the client’s goals and existing commitments. The inclusion of previous arrangements helps provide a full financial picture and ensures the recommendations are appropriate.

Definition of Recession:

A recession is defined as two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth, indicating a sustained economic downturn.

It reflects reduced consumer spending, higher unemployment, and lower production.

Elimination of Other Options:

B (Slump): A slump is a more general term and not a specific phase.

C (Depression): Refers to prolonged and severe economic downturns.

D (Inflationary): Opposite of the scenario described.

References:

ICWIM Module 1: Explanation of economic cycles and recession indicators.

Synthetic replication involves tracking an index using derivatives such as swaps. A swap agreement allows the fund to replicate the index performance without holding the actual underlying assets, reducing transaction costs and increasing efficiency.

Fiduciary Duty:

A fiduciary is legally and ethically bound to prioritize the client’s best interests above all else, ensuring transparency, loyalty, and care in decision-making.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Reducing risk is important but not the primary fiduciary responsibility.

B: Competitive fees are desirable but not a fiduciary obligation.

D: Offering conservative advice is situational and based on client needs, not a fiduciary mandate.

References:

ICWIM Module 4: Coverage of fiduciary duties in financial advising.

Execution-only refers to situations where clients make investment decisions without receiving advice from the firm. The firm’s role is limited to executing the client’s instructions, without providing recommendations or assessing suitability.

Key features:

The firm does not offer advice.

The client takes full responsibility for their investment decisions.

Equity funds allow portfolio managers to efficiently access a specific market or sector that may otherwise require significant resources and expertise to invest in directly. For instance, a fund specializing in renewable energy provides exposure to that sector without the need for individual stock selection.

Avoiding capital gains tax (A): This is not applicable because funds do not inherently avoid tax obligations.

Reducing ongoing charges (C): Funds typically have higher fees than directly holding equities.

Changes in volatility (D): While funds manage diversification, they do not specifically capitalize on volatility.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Section on mutual funds and specialized investment funds.

Use of funds for sectoral or thematic investment strategies.

Factors Shifting Aggregate Demand (AD) Rightward:

Depreciation of the pound makes UK exports cheaper and imports more expensive, increasing net exports.

Higher net exports increase aggregate demand, shifting the curve to the right.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Lower consumer confidence decreases consumption, shifting AD leftward.

B: Increased expected inflation may reduce real spending.

D: Lower expected inflation discourages spending.

References:

ICWIM Module 1: Macroeconomic factors influencing aggregate demand.

Expansionary Fiscal Policy and Inflation:

Expansionary fiscal policy increases aggregate demand by boosting public spending or reducing taxes.

This raises employment, leading to higher wage demands as workers negotiate for their share of economic growth.

Higher wages increase production costs, causing inflationary pressures.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Higher interest rates are associated with contractionary, not expansionary, policy.

C: Private sector investment typically rises, not falls.

D: Time lag affects the policy's impact but is not a direct cause of inflation.

References:

ICWIM Module 1: Discussion on fiscal policy and its effects on inflation.

Impact of Technological Change and Globalisation:

Both trends encourage economic expansion and diversification.

Bond issuance rises as companies and governments seek capital to invest in infrastructure, technology, and globalization-driven initiatives.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Urbanization has increased due to globalization, making this incorrect.

B: Equity issuance has not significantly decreased; bonds have grown alongside equities.

C: Technological change often reduces inflationary pressure through efficiency.

References:

ICWIM Module 1: Globalization and Financial Markets: Examines the role of debt markets in global finance.

Demutualisation refers to the process by which a mutual savings institution, such as a building society, converts into a publicly traded company or bank. This transformation allows the institution to raise capital through equity issuance and expand its services beyond mutual members.

Example:

The Abbey National Building Society in the UK demutualised in the 1980s to become a bank.

Stocks with abeta of less than oneare less volatile than the overall market. Including such stocks in a portfolio helps reduce its overall volatility, aligning with the risk-averse nature of the client.

Easier to understand (A): Simplicity is not a factor in beta selection.

Moves in line with the market (B): A beta of less than one means the portfolio moves less than the market.

High-volatility portfolio (D): This would involve stocks with a beta greater than one, contrary to the client’s risk profile.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Beta as a measure of systematic risk and its implications for portfolio construction.

CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) principles on beta and risk.