CompTIA SK0-005 CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Exam Practice Test

If the server administrator patches the server with the latest vendor-suggested software, configures DHCP, and verifies all network cables are properly connected in the IDF, but there is no network connectivity, then the most likely reason for the lack of connectivity is that the VLAN is improperly configured. A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain and can communicate with each other without routing. If the server is assigned to a different VLAN than the DHCP server or the default gateway, it will not be able to obtain an IP address or reach other network devices. The DNS configuration is not relevant for network connectivity, as DNS only resolves names to IP addresses. The OS version is not likely to be incompatible with the network switch vendor, as most network switches use standard protocols and interfaces. The HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is not likely to prevent the connection, as HIDS only monitors and alerts on suspicious activities on the host. References: on-detection-system-ids-and-how-does-it-work/

Cloud software licensing refers to the process of managing and storing software licenses in the cloud. The benefits of cloud software licensing models are vast. The main and most attractive benefit has to do with the ease of use for software vendors and the ability to provide customizable cloud software license management based on customer needs and desires1. Cloud-based licensing gives software developers and vendors the opportunity to deliver software easily and quickly and gives customers full control over their licenses, their analytics, and more1. Cloud based licensing gives software sellers the ability to add subscription models to their roster of services1. Subscription models are one of the most popular forms of licensing today1. Users sign up for a subscription (often based on various options and levels of use, features, etc.) and receive their licenses instantly1. References: 1 Everything You Need to Know about Cloud Licensing | Thales

Monitors Network Traffic

The connection type that the server administrator is using to access the server remotely is out-of-band management. Out-of-band management is a method of accessing and controlling a server through a dedicated network interface or port that is separate from the regular data network. Out-of-band management allows administrators to perform tasks such as rebooting, configuring, troubleshooting, or updating a server even if the server is offline or unresponsive through the regular network. Out-of-band management can use protocols such as IPMI, iLO, DRAC, or BMC. Reference:

The most efficient subnet address for a network that will have no more than 30 available IP addresses is 255.255.255.224. This subnet mask corresponds to a /27 prefix length, which means that 27 bits are used for the network portion and 5 bits are used for the host portion of an IP address. With 5 bits for hosts, there are 2^5 - 2 = 30 possible host addresses per subnet, which meets the requirement. The other options are either too large or too small for the network size. Reference: loud/learn/subnet-mask

The first action that the administrator should take before swapping out the GPU card inside a server is to shut down the server. This is to ensure that the server is not running any processes that might be using the GPU card, and to prevent any damage to the hardware or data loss due to sudden power loss. Shutting down the server also reduces the risk of electrostatic discharge (ESD) that might harm the components. Reference:

These are two methods that can prevent a user from installing an OS on a server if properly configured. A bootloader password is a password that protects the bootloader from unauthorized access or modification. The bootloader is a program that loads the operating system into memory when the system boots up. If a user does not know the bootloader password, they cannot change the boot order or boot from another device such as a CD-ROM or USB drive that contains an OS installation media. A BIOS/UEFI password is a password that protects the BIOS (Basic Input Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) from unauthorized access or modification. The BIOS or UEFI is a firmware that initializes and configures the hardware components of the system before loading

These are two measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs. A data breach is an unauthorized or illegal access to confidential or sensitive data by an internal or external actor. A data breach can result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, and regulatory penalties for the affected organization. Disclosing the incident is a measure that involves informing the relevant stakeholders, such as customers, employees, partners, regulators, and law enforcement, about the nature, scope, and impact of the data breach. Disclosing the incident can help to mitigate the negative consequences of the data breach, comply with legal obligations, and restore trust and confidence. Identifying the exploited vulnerability is a measure that involves investigating and analyzing the root cause and source of the data breach. Identifying the exploited vulnerability can help to prevent further data loss, remediate the security gaps, and improve the security posture of the organization. Restoring the data from backup is a measure that involves recovering the lost or corrupted data from a secondary storage device or location. However, this does not address the underlying issue of how the data breach occurred or prevent future breaches. Disabling unnecessary ports is a measure that involves closing or blocking network communication endpoints that are not required for legitimate purposes. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Running an antivirus scan is a measure that involves detecting and removing malicious software from a system or network. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Moving the data to a different location is a measure that involves transferring the data to another storage device or location that may be more secure or less accessible. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. References: /428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/ ht

Data at rest refers to data that is stored in a persistent state on any device or media, such as hard drives, tapes, or cloud storage. Data at rest does not move for long periods of time unless it is accessed or modified by authorized users or applications. A cold site (A) is a backup location that has minimal or no equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. On-site retention © is a policy of keeping backup data on premises for a certain period of time before transferring it to an off-site location. Off-site storage (D) is a method of storing backup data in a remote location that is physically or logically separated from the primary site. References:

The installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation is described as a guest. A guest is a term that refers to a virtual machine (VM) that runs on top of a host operating system (OS) using a hypervisor or a virtualization software. A guest can have a different OS than the host, and can run multiple applications or services independently from the host. A guest can also be isolated from the host and other guests for security or testing purposes.

This is the most appropriate way to complete the task because it follows the best practices of cable management. Cable management is a process of organizing and securing cables in a rack or a server room to improve airflow, accessibility, safety, and aesthetics. Running the network cables up the left side and the power cables down the right side of the rack helps to avoid cable clutter, interference, and confusion. It also makes it easier to trace and troubleshoot cables if needed. Using appropriate-length cables also helps to reduce cable slack and excess. Wiring the cables through the cable management arm may cause stress and damage to the cables when moving the server in or out of the rack. Using the longest cables possible may create cable loops and tangles that can block airflow and increase fire hazards. Installing an Ethernet patch panel and a PDU (Power Distribution Unit) may be useful for accommodating more network and power cables, but not necessary for a single server. References: geek.com/303282/how-to-manage-your-pcs-fans-for-optimal-airflow-and-cooling/

Teaming is a technique that can be configured on a server for network redundancy. Teaming involves combining two or more network adapters into a single logical unit that acts as one network interface. This way, if one network adapter fails, another one can take over without disrupting network connectivity. Teaming can also improve network performance by load balancing traffic across multiple network adapters. Clustering is a technique that involves grouping two or more servers together to act as one system for high availability and fault tolerance. Virtualizing is a technique that involves creating multiple virtual machines on a single physical server to optimize resource utilization and flexibility. Cloning is a technique that involves creating an exact copy of a server’s configuration and data for backup or migration purposes. References: https:/

To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify that the volume is formatted as GPT. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that defines how data is organized on a hard disk drive (HDD) or a solid state drive (SSD). GPT uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions and supports up to 128 primary partitions per disk. GPT also supports disks larger than 2 TB and has a backup copy of the partition table at the end of the disk for data recovery. GPT is required for installing Windows on UEFI-based PCs, which offer faster boot time and better security than legacy BIOS-based PCs.

The server administrator needs to adhere to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) when responding to tickets within a certain amount of time. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the quality, availability, and responsibilities of the service. An SLA may specify the response time for tickets, as well as other metrics such as uptime, performance, security, and backup frequency. Reference:

The best way to complete the request to harden the server is to disable port 389 on the server. Port 389 is the default port used by LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol), which is a protocol that allows access and modification of directory services over a network. LDAP can be used for authentication, authorization, or information retrieval purposes. However, LDAP does not encrypt its data by default, which can expose sensitive information or credentials to attackers who can intercept or modify the network traffic. Therefore, port 389 should be disabled on a web server that only hosts websites and does not need LDAP functionality. Alternatively, port 636 can be used instead of port 389 to enable LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS), which encrypts the data using SSL/TLS certificates.

A synthetic full backup is a backup method that describes copying only changed files each time it runs and using only a single file during a restore. A synthetic full backup is a backup approach that involves creating a new full backup by using the previous full backup and related incremental backups. This means that a backup solution does not have to transfer the full amount of data from the source machine and can synthetize the latest incremental backups with the last full backup to create a new full backup. This reduces the backup window and network bandwidth consumption. During a restore, only the latest synthetic full backup file is needed to recover the data. Open file backup is a backup method that allows backing up files that are in use or locked by applications. Full incremental backup is a backup method that involves performing a full backup first and then backing up only the changed files since the last backup. Full differential backup is a backup method that involves performing a full backup first and then backing up only the changed files since the last full backup. References: backup/ -about-creating-system-image-backups/

A core installation is a type of installation method that is best suited to meet the company policy that states no one is to log in directly to the server. A core installation is a minimal installation option that is available when deploying some editions of Windows Server. A core installation includes most but not all server roles and features, but does not include a graphical user interface (GUI). A core installation can only be managed remotely using command-line tools such as PowerShell or Windows Admin Center, or using graphical tools such as Server Manager or Remote Desktop from another computer. This reduces the attack surface, resource consumption, and maintenance requirements of the server. A GUI installation is a type of installation method that includes a graphical user interface (GUI) and allows local or remote management using graphical tools or command-line tools. A virtualized installation is a type of installation method that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A clone installation is a type of installation method that involves creating an exact copy of an existing server’s configuration and data on another server using tools such as Sysprep or Clonezilla. References: o-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/

The next thing that the technician should do, given the disk is hot swappable, is to replace the disk. A hot swappable disk is a disk that can be removed and replaced without shutting down the system or affecting its operation. A hot swappable disk is typically used in a storage array that has RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration that provides fault tolerance and redundancy. If a disk fails in a RAID array, it can be replaced by a new disk without interrupting the service or losing any data. The new disk will automatically rebuild itself using the data from the other disks in the array.

The next action that the administrator should take once the rebuild is finished is to swap the drive and initialize the disk. This is to replace the faulty disk that has a solid amber light, which indicates a predictive failure or a SMART error. Initializing the disk will prepare it for use by the RAID controller and add it to the array. The administrator should also monitor the array status and performance after swapping the drive. Reference:

RAID 1 (mirroring) is a RAID configuration that should be used to provide redundancy for the OS on a server that has two hard drives on which to install the OS. RAID 1 (mirroring) is a configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 0 (striping) is a configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 5 (striping with parity) is a configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive’s worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. RAID 6 (striping with double parity) is a configuration that stripes data across four or more drives with double parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by two drives’ worth of space. RAID 6 can tolerate two drive failures without data loss, but not three or more. References: /how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/

The best strategy to ensure wayward vehicle traffic does not interfere with datacenter operations is to install bollards. Bollards are sturdy posts that are installed around a perimeter to prevent vehicles from entering or crashing into a protected area. Bollards can provide physical security and deterrence for datacenters that are located near busy roads or parking lots. Bollards can also prevent accidental damage or injury caused by vehicles that lose control or have faulty brakes.

The component that allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure is midplane. A midplane is a board or panel that connects two sets of connectors or devices in parallel with each other. A midplane is typically used in blade enclosures or chassis to provide power and data connections between blade servers on one side and power supplies, cooling fans, switches, or management modules on the other side. A midplane can also act as a backplane by providing bus signals or communication channels between devices.

Unexpected shutdowns. If the system is randomly shutting down or rebooting, the most likely cause is a heat problem.

The administrator must encrypt the data at rest to ensure data on the SAN is not compromised if it is leaked. Data at rest refers to data that is stored on a device or a medium, such as a hard drive, a flash drive, or a SAN (Storage Area Network). Data at rest can be leaked if the device or the medium is lost, stolen, or accessed by unauthorized parties. Encrypting data at rest means applying an algorithm that transforms the data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key. Encryption protects data at rest from being exposed or misused by attackers who may obtain the device or the medium.

SIEM is the tool that will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events. SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a software solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates log data from various sources, such as servers, firewalls, routers, antivirus software, etc. SIEM can detect anomalies, patterns, trends, and threats in the log data and generate alerts or reports for security monitoring and incident response. SIEM can also provide historical analysis and compliance reporting for audit purposes.

An IDRAC (Integrated Dell Remote Access Controller) is a tool that can be used to command a remote shutdown of a physical Linux server. An IDRAC is a hardware device that provides out-of-band management for Dell servers. It allows the technician to access the server’s console, power cycle, reboot, or shut down the server remotely using a web interface or a command-line interface. An IDRAC does not depend on the operating system or network connectivity of the server. A virtual serial console is a tool that can be used to access a remote virtual machine’s console using a serial port connection. A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows the technician to switch between different computer sources using the same keyboard, monitor, and mouse. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a keyboard, monitor, mouse, and other tools that can be connected to a physical server for troubleshooting purposes. References: ww.howtogeek.com/799968/what-is-a-kvm-switch/

The server type that would benefit most from the use of a load balancer is web server. A web server is a server that hosts web applications or websites and responds to requests from web browsers or clients. A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers based on various criteria, such as availability, capacity, or performance. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and performance of web servers by balancing the workload and preventing any single server from being overloaded or unavailable.

The best backup methods to use to support the management’s priorities are differential and incremental. A backup is a process of copying data from a source to a destination for the purpose of restoring it in case of data loss or corruption. There are different types of backup methods that vary in terms of speed, efficiency, and storage requirements. Differential and incremental backups are two types of partial backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last full backup. A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the data from the source to the destination. A full backup provides the most complete and reliable restore option, but it also takes the longest time and requires the most storage space. A differential backup copies only the data that has changed since the last full backup. A differential backup provides a faster restore option than an incremental backup, but it also takes more time and requires more storage space than an incremental backup. An incremental backup copies only the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup provides the fastest and most efficient backup option, but it also requires multiple backups to restore the data completely.

The administrator should implement separate circuits first to address the issue of power issues due to the increased load. Separate circuits are electrical wiring systems that provide independent power sources for different devices or groups of devices. By using separate circuits, the administrator can avoid overloading a single circuit with too many servers and reduce the risk of power outages, surges, or fires. Separate circuits also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, as a failure in one circuit will not affect the other circuit.

The access control methodology that can be described best as allowing a user the least access based on the jobs the user needs to perform is role-based access control (RBAC). RBAC is an access control method that assigns permissions to users based on their roles or functions within an organization. RBAC provides fine-grained and manageable access control by defining what actions each role can perform and what resources each role can access. RBAC follows the principle of least privilege, which means that users are only granted the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. RBAC can reduce security risks, simplify administration, and enforce compliance policies.

#! is the symbol that should be placed at the top of a Bash script to ensure it can be executed. #! is also known as shebang or hashbang. It is a special notation that tells the operating system which interpreter to use to run the script. The shebang is followed by the path to the interpreter, such as /bin/bash for Bash, /bin/python for Python, or /bin/perl for Perl. For example, a Bash script that prints “Hello World” would start with:

#!/bin/bash echo “Hello World”

The shebang must be the first line of the script and must not have any spaces between the # and ! symbols. bash is not a valid shebang by itself, as it does not specify the path to the interpreter. !execute is not a valid shebang at all, as it does not start with #. @echo off is a command that disables the echoing of commands in a batch file on Windows, but it has nothing to do with Bash scripts on Linux. References:

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL): SSL and its successor Transport Layer Security (TLS) enable client and server computers to establish a secure connection session and manage encryption and decryption activities.

The administrator should only allow secure traffic and DNS inquiries on the server, which means that only ports 22, 53, and 443 should be open. Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI). Port 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System), which is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Port 443 is used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data exchanged between a web browser and a web server.

Dynamic disk is a technology that allows an administrator to build a software RAID on a Windows server. Dynamic disk is a type of disk management that supports creating volumes that span multiple disks, stripe data across disks, mirror data between disks, or use parity for fault tolerance. Dynamic disk can be used to create RAID 0 (striping), RAID 1 (mirroring), RAID 5 (striping with parity), or spanned volumes on Windows servers. Logical volume management is a technology that allows creating and resizing logical volumes on Linux servers. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a standard for defining the partition structure on a disk. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a specification for the interface between the operating system and the firmware. References: tween-gpt-and-mbr-when-partitioning-a-drive/

 Explanation: To make a new drive available on a server, the administrator needs to partition the drive first. Partitioning is a process that divides the drive into one or more logical sections that can be formatted and assigned drive letters or mount points. Partitioning can be done using tools such as Disk Management on Windows or fdisk on Linux. Creating a new disk quota would not help, as disk quotas are used to limit the amount of disk space that users or groups can use on a partition. Configuring the drive as dynamic would not help either, as dynamic disks are used to create volumes that span multiple disks or use RAID features. Setting the compression would not help, as compression is used to reduce the size of files on a partition. References:

Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.

These are the port numbers that must be configured on a host-based firewall for a server that needs to allow SSH, FTP, and LDAP traffic. A port number is a numerical identifier that specifies a communication endpoint for a network protocol or an application. A host-based firewall is a software tool that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host based on predefined rules. SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that allows secure remote access and file transfer over an encrypted connection. The default port number for SSH is 22. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows transferring files between hosts over a network connection. The default port number for FTP is 21. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol that allows accessing and managing directory services over a network connection. The default port number for LDAP is 389. References: 2/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/ wtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/

The best solutions to resolve the concern of transmissions from the building being detected from outside are signal blocking and reflective glass. Signal blocking is a method of preventing or interfering with electromagnetic signals from escaping or entering a certain area. Signal blocking can be achieved by using various materials or devices that create physical barriers or generate noise or jamming signals. Signal blocking can protect data transmissions from being intercepted or eavesdropped by unauthorized parties. Reflective glass is a type of glass that has a coating or film that reflects light and heat. Reflective glass can reduce glare and solar radiation, as well as prevent visual observation from outside. Reflective glass can enhance privacy and security for datacenter operations.

To disable root login over SSH, the server administrator needs to edit the SSH configuration file located at /etc/ssh/sshd_config. This file contains various settings for the SSH daemon that runs on the server and accepts incoming SSH connections. The administrator needs to find the line that says PermitRootLogin and change it to no or comment it out with a # symbol. Then, the administrator needs to restart the SSH service for the changes to take effect. References:

The administrator should use the command mount –o remount,rw /newdisk to successfully mount the drive with the required parameters. The mount command is used to mount file systems on Linux systems. The –o option specifies options for mounting file systems. The remount option re-mounts an already mounted file system with different options. The rw option mounts a file system with read-write permissions. In this case, /newdisk is a mount point for a new hard disk that was mounted with read-only permissions by default. To allow users to create directories or files on /newdisk, the administrator needs to re-mount /

Encryption at rest is a type of encryption methodology that would most likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen. Encryption at rest is a process of encrypting stored data on a device such as a hard drive, SSD, USB flash drive, or mobile device. This way, if the device is lost or stolen, the data cannot be accessed without the encryption key or password. Encryption at rest can be implemented using software tools such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on Mac OS, or hardware features such as self-encrypting drives or Trusted Platform Module chips. End-to-end encryption is a type of encryption methodology that ensures encrypted data cannot be intercepted or modified by third parties during transmission over a network. Encryption in transit is a type of encryption methodology that protects encrypted data while it is moving from one location to another over a network. Public key encryption is a type of encryption algorithm that uses a pair of keys: a public key that can be shared with anyone and a private key that is kept secret by the owner. References:

The next thing that the technician should perform is to enable the port on the server. A port is a logical endpoint that identifies a specific service or application on a network device. A port can be enabled or disabled depending on whether the service or application is running or not. If a port is disabled on a server, it means that the server cannot send or receive any network traffic on that port, which can prevent communication with other devices or services that use that port. In this case, if port 389 is disabled on the server, it means that the server cannot use LDAP to access or modify directory services over a network. To resolve this issue, the technician should enable port 389 on the server using commands such as netsh or iptables.

Faulty memory and incorrectly seated memory are likely causes of the random BSOD conditions on the server. Memory is one of the most common hardware components that can cause BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors on Windows systems. BSOD errors occur when the system encounters a fatal error that prevents it from continuing to operate normally. Memory errors can be caused by faulty or incompatible memory modules that have physical defects or manufacturing flaws. Memory errors can also be caused by incorrectly seated memory modules that are not properly inserted or locked into the memory slots on the motherboard. This can result in loose or poor connections between the memory modules and the motherboard.

The RAID level that provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array is RAID 0. RAID 0 is a type of RAID level that provides performance enhancement by using striping. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy, as it does not use any parity or mirroring techniques. RAID 0 uses all of the available disk space for data storage, without losing any space for overhead. Therefore, RAID 0 provides the highest possible capacity for a storage array, but also has the highest risk of data loss.

The first thing the administrator should check is whether the server is in the collection that was scheduled to receive the update through SCCM. A collection is a group of resources, such as computers or users, that can be managed as a single entity by SCCM. If the server is not in the collection, it will not receive the update. The other options are less likely to be the cause of the problem, as they would affect other aspects of the server’s functionality besides receiving updates. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, apply patches/updates and validate their installation.

The virtual server’s time is incorrect despite proper configuration of internal time servers.

Resolution: The engineer should manually correct the time (Option D):

If the internal time servers are configured correctly, manual adjustment is necessary.

Checking firewall rules would help identify NTP (Network Time Protocol) issues.

Replacing the CMOS battery is unlikely to be the cause of incorrect time.

Enabling open file backups allows the backup software to copy files that are currently open or in use by applications. This ensures that even if a file is actively being modified during the backup process, it will still be included in the backup.

Advantages:

Ensures consistency of backed-up data, especially for files that are frequently accessed or modified.

Prevents data loss due to files being skipped during backup.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Guide, Chapter 6: Storage, Section 6.3.2 (Backup Types)

Microsoft Docs: Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)

If drive C is running out of space and there is unallocated space available on the disk, the best solution is to partition the unallocated space and extend drive C to include the new partition. This can be done without significant downtime and will immediately provide more space for the system.

Partition the unallocated space (Answer E): This is the simplest and least disruptive method to increase the available space on drive C.

Decreasing the page/swap file (Option A): This may free up some space but can negatively impact system performance.

Reformatting (Option B): Reformatting would result in significant downtime and data loss, making it an impractical option.

Whole disk encryption (Option C): This does not solve the issue of disk space.

Enforcing disk quotas (Option D): Disk quotas manage space usage but won’t free up space on drive C.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common server problems.

Since port 3306 (MySQL) is open on the local workstation as confirmed by the Nmap scan, the next logical step is to check network firewall rules. It’s possible that the workstation’s firewall or network-level security rules are blocking outbound or inbound traffic on port 3306, which is required for database access.

Edit the network firewall rules (Answer D): Ensuring the firewall allows traffic on port 3306 is the appropriate next step, especially since other workstations are not having the same issue.

Checking the database server (Option A): This is unnecessary because other workstations can access the server, confirming the server itself is functioning correctly.

Changing the database password (Option B): This would not resolve the issue of one workstation being unable to connect while others can.

Opening port 3306 on the server (Option C): The problem isn't server-side since other machines can connect without issue.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 2.4: Troubleshoot common server problems.

A warranty is a type of asset management documentation that is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component. A warranty is a guarantee from the manufacturer or vendor that covers the repair or replacement of defective parts within a specified period of time. A purchase order, a license, or a baseline document are not directly related to the replacement of a faulty server component. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Architecture, Objective 1.4: Explain asset management and documentation processes.

A business impact analysis (BIA) is a document that outlines the potential effects of downtime on business operations. It identifies critical business functions and estimates the impact of disruption on the organization's ability to function.

Business impact analysis (Answer D): This document is specifically designed to assess the consequences of downtime and other disruptions.

Service-level agreement (Option A): Defines the expected level of service between a provider and a client but doesn't directly explain downtime consequences.

Business continuity plan (Option B): Outlines how the business will continue operating during a disruption but doesn’t focus solely on the consequences of downtime.

Disaster recovery plan (Option C): Focuses on restoring systems after a disaster but doesn’t outline the specific impact of downtime.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain disaster recovery concepts.

iSCSI is a protocol that allows SCSI commands to be transmitted over IP networks, enabling remote access to storage devices. iSCSI uses IP addresses to identify and communicate with the storage array, so having multiple IP addresses for the array indicates that iSCSI is being used. eSATA, USB, and FC are other types of connections that use different protocols and connectors than iSCSI. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install and deploy primary storage devices based on given specifications and interfaces.

A headless installation is an installation method that does not require a graphical user interface (GUI) or a monitor, keyboard, and mouse. It can be done remotely through a network connection or a command-line interface. A headless installation is suitable for a server that has limited resources and does not need a GUI.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 14

Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management2, Module 2, Lesson 5

The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) refers to the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost from an IT service due to a major incident. The policy mentioned in the question highlights that data loss exceeding one hour is unacceptable, directly relating to the RPO concept. RPO is critical in disaster recovery and business continuity planning, indicating the age of the files that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume without significant losses. MTTR (Mean Time To Repair), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are related concepts but do not specifically address the amount of data loss that can be tolerated.

Load balancing is a method used to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers. In this scenario, the administrator is tasked with ensuring that all four servers can serve the same website, which is a typical use case for load balancing.

Load balancing (Answer A): Distributes web traffic across multiple servers to ensure availability and reliability.

Direct access (Option B): Refers to client devices connecting directly to a network resource, unrelated to the described scenario.

Overprovisioning (Option C): Refers to allocating more resources than are currently needed, not relevant to load distribution.

Network teaming (Option D): Involves combining multiple network interfaces for redundancy or increased throughput but doesn't address server distribution.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.4: Explain networking concepts for server environments.

Network latency is the measure of delay in data transmission over a network. It can affect the quality of voice over IP (VoIP) calls by causing echo, jitter, or distortion. Network latency can be caused by various factors such as network congestion, distance, routing, or bandwidth. To monitor network latency, you can use tools such as ping, traceroute, or network analyzers.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 237.

Driver updates should be applied to the new components that have been added to a mission-critical server, as part of the server hardening requirements. Drivers are software programs that enable the communication and functionality of hardware devices, such as network cards, storage controllers, or graphics cards. Updating drivers can improve the performance, compatibility, and stability of the new components with the server operating system and applications. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.

The loud noises from the servers are most likely caused by failing hard disk drives, which can produce clicking or grinding sounds. Replacing the drives with new ones can prevent data loss and downtime. Replacing the drives can be done without shutting down the server if they are hot-swappable, which means they can be removed and inserted while the server is running. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install, deploy, configure and update physical storage devices.

A snapshot is a point-in-time image of a system's state that can be created while the system is running, without interrupting operations. Snapshots can be used to restore the entire system to the exact state at the time of the snapshot. They are commonly used in virtualized environments and allow administrators to roll back to a previous state if needed.

Snapshot (Answer A): Captures the entire system's state and can be taken without downtime.

Archive (Option B): Refers to long-term storage, not necessarily something that supports live backups.

Open file (Option C): Refers to a method that handles open files during backup but doesn’t provide full system restoration capabilities.

Differential (Option D): Backs up only the data changed since the last full backup but still requires a full backup for complete system restoration.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain backup and recovery methods.

Link aggregation is a technique that allows multiple network interfaces to act as one logical interface, increasing the bandwidth and redundancy of the connection. This can improve the load balancing of network traffic without requiring any new hardware or software. Round robin, most recently used, and heartbeat are not load balancing methods, but rather scheduling algorithms or monitoring techniques. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, configure NIC teaming.

A warm site is a backup site that has some of the necessary hardware, software, and network resources to resume operations, but not all of them. A warm site requires some time and effort to become fully operational. A warm site is different from a cold site, which has minimal or no resources, and a hot site, which has all the resources and is ready to take over immediately.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 10: Disaster Recovery, page 403.

In a situation where a server reboots randomly, the first step should be to check for any issues with the power supply. Random reboots can often be caused by intermittent power supply issues, which can be due to faulty power cables, loose connections, or problems with the power source itself. This is especially pertinent in environments like a paper mill where dust and debris might affect cable integrity. Since the issue occurs every other day and at random times, it's less likely to be caused by components that would typically fail due to overheating or other gradual issues (like RAM or CPU heat sink problems). Therefore, checking the power cables is the simplest and most direct first step to troubleshoot the issue.

An emergency change request is a type of change management activity that is used to address urgent issues that pose a significant risk to the organization, such as a system breach. An emergency change request requires immediate action and approval, and it may bypass some of the normal change management procedures, such as testing, documentation, or stakeholder communication12.

References = 1: Change Management Plans: A Definitive Guide - 2: The 10 Best Change Management Activities -

A DNS entry is a record that maps a domain name to an IP address. If the DNS entry for the new application is incorrect, users will not be able to resolve the domain name to the correct IP address and port number. This will prevent them from accessing the application, even if the firewall rules allow port 8443. To fix this issue, the server administrator should verify and update the DNS entry for the new application.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 230.

A CMOS battery failure can cause the server to lose its BIOS settings, including the date and time, which can affect the server’s functionality and connectivity. The servers have NTP (Network Time Protocol) configured to synchronize their clocks with a reliable time source, which can prevent time drift and ensure consistent timestamps. If one server has a wrong date and time, it can cause conflicts and errors with the other servers that have NTP configured.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 9

Signs or symptoms of a CMOS battery failure2

NTP: Network Time Protocol

The AVC denial error message indicates that SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is preventing the MySQL update from installing. SELinux is a security module that enforces mandatory access control policies on Linux systems. To install the MySQL update, the technician should issue the setenforce 0 command, which temporarily disables SELinux enforcement until the next reboot. Downloading the update manually, creating a firewall rule, or issuing the yum -y update mysql command will not resolve the error. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Server Administration, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, troubleshoot server issues using appropriate tools.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) refers to the target time set for the recovery of IT and business activities after a disaster has struck, which includes restoring server, network, and data access. The policy requirement mentioned in the question aligns with the definition of RTO, as it specifies the maximum allowable downtime or the time within which functionality must be restored. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) and Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) are metrics related to the reliability and repair times of systems but do not specifically pertain to disaster recovery time frames. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, not the restoration of operations.

The fact that the server is running at maximum capacity, combined with the open ports, suggests that the server may have been compromised by a virus infection. Malware can exploit unnecessary open ports, leading to resource exhaustion and performance issues.

Virus infection (Answer C): Malware often exploits open ports and consumes system resources, leading to performance degradation.

Incorrect share permissions (Option A): This would affect access but not resource utilization.

Improper privilege escalation (Option B): This refers to unauthorized users gaining higher access rights, but it doesn't explain the high resource usage.

Misconfigured firewall rule (Option D): A misconfigured firewall could allow unnecessary traffic, but it’s less likely to cause performance issues unless combined with malware.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain server security concepts and best practices.

The first thing that the administrator should check is the network cable. The network cable is a physical medium that connects a server to a switch or other network device. The network cable can affect the speed and quality of the network connection, depending on its type, length, and condition. If the network cable is damaged, faulty, or incompatible, it can cause the server to connect at a lower speed than expected. Therefore, the administrator should check the network cable for any signs of wear, tear, or mismatch, and replace it if necessary.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.1, Objective 2.1

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that would most likely be implemented to encrypt data in transit for remote administration. SSH provides secure communication between two devices over an unsecured network by using public-key cryptography and symmetric encryption. SSH can be used to remotely execute commands, transfer files, or tunnel other protocols. Telnet, TFTP, and rlogin are protocols that do not encrypt data in transit and are considered insecure for remote administration. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario involving network security/access methods, implement an appropriate solution.

The server’s local storage is experiencing problems. Only two out of four drives are found, and an additional hard drive connects and disconnects randomly.

Likely Cause: The most probable cause is a faulty power supply (Option B). Here’s why:

When a power supply is failing or not providing sufficient power, it can lead to intermittent connectivity issues with drives.

Drives may not be recognized during boot or may disconnect randomly due to power fluctuations.

RAM, CPU, and cooling failures typically result in different symptoms (e.g., blue screens, system instability, or overheating), which do not match the described issue.

Uplink redundancy is a method used to ensure that if one physical network interface card (NIC) fails, the network connectivity for the virtual machines (VMs) does not go down. This is typically achieved by configuring multiple NICs to connect to a single virtual switch (vSwitch) and setting up NIC teaming or bonding. The vSwitch manages the internal network traffic between the VMs and the outside network by using the physical NICs assigned to it. By configuring the vSwitch with multiple NICs, you can create redundancy, so if one NIC fails, the other NICs can take over the traffic, ensuring continuous network connectivity.

In an active-passive load balancing configuration, one path (or server) handles all the traffic while the other remains in standby mode, ready to take over if the active path becomes unavailable. This setup is typically monitored via a heartbeat mechanism, where the standby server checks the availability of the active server and takes over when it detects a failure.

Heartbeat (Answer B): This term refers to the monitoring process that checks the availability of the active path in an active-passive configuration.

Most recently used (Option A): This describes a load-balancing method where the most recently used path or server is prioritized, but it doesn’t describe an active-passive setup.

Link aggregation (Option C): This refers to combining multiple network connections for increased throughput, not for failover purposes.

Round robin (Option D): This load-balancing method alternates traffic between all available paths, which doesn’t match the active-passive description.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.4: Summarize methods used to manage network connections.

To enable a user to both read and write to a file, the administrator needs to provide "modify" rights. This permission level allows the user not only to open and view the file (read) but also to make changes and save those changes back to the file (write). "Read and execute" rights would allow the user to open and run the file but not make any changes. "List folder contents" rights would enable the user to view the files within a folder but not make changes to them. "Full control" rights would provide the user with complete control over the file, including the ability to change permissions and delete the file, which exceeds the principle of least-privilege access necessary for this task.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with all CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Study Guide References:The most likely cause of a speed mismatch (100Mbps instead of 1Gbps) is a defective or incompatible network cable. Gigabit Ethernet requires at least Cat5e or Cat6 cables; using older cables (e.g., Cat5) or damaged cables can limit speeds to 100Mbps.

Port security and VLAN misconfiguration would typically prevent communication entirely, not reduce speed.

Incorrect IP subnet does not affect link speed.Checking and replacing the network cable is a logical first troubleshooting step in this scenario.

Archive is a method of storing historical data that is not frequently accessed or modified. Archive can reduce the amount of data that needs to be backed up and save bandwidth and storage space. Differential is a method of backing up only the data that has changed since the last full backup. Differential can also save bandwidth and storage space, as well as speed up the backup process.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12

Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management2, Module 2, Lesson 5

When new RAID controllers are installed and disks go missing, the first logical step is to reboot to the RAID controller BIOS and rescan for attached disks and arrays (Answer A). This will allow the RAID controller to detect the connected drives and rebuild the RAID configuration as expected.

Rebooting to RAID controller BIOS (Answer A): This step ensures that all the attached disks and arrays are properly detected and mapped to the RAID configuration.

Checking UEFI settings (Option B): This might be useful later, but initially, the RAID controller BIOS should be checked first to verify disk detection.

Turning off external arrays (Option C): While this could be helpful in some scenarios, it's not the most efficient first step.

Checking cables (Option D): This could be necessary, but since the controllers were just replaced, software/BIOS configurations should be checked first.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 3.1: Install and configure server components.

A backdoor is a security risk that provides unauthorized access to an application. A backdoor is a hidden or undocumented way of bypassing the normal authentication or encryption mechanisms of an application, allowing an attacker to gain remote access, execute commands, or steal data. A backdoor can be created intentionally by the developer, maliciously by an attacker, or unintentionally by a programming error. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, apply logical access control methods.

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is a simple and lightweight protocol that can be used to transfer files over a network. TFTP is often used to upgrade firmware or software on network devices, such as routers, switches, or servers. TFTP can also be used to install a Type 1 hypervisor, such as VMware ESXi, on multiple hosts simultaneously12.

References = 1: How to Install VMware ESXi Type 1 Hypervisor - 2: Explore Type 1 Hypervisors - Set Up Virtual Machines Using VirtualBox and vSphere -

Using a network-based deployment, such as network booting (PXE - Preboot Execution Environment) or imaging through a server, is the most efficient way to load operating systems onto multiple machines simultaneously. This approach minimizes the manual intervention required for each device, as the administrator can initiate the operating system installation or imaging process across all desktops at once through the network. In contrast, using an SD card, DVD (Optical), or USB would require the administrator to physically move the media from one desktop to another, significantly increasing the setup time for each device.

A perpetual license is a one-time purchase that allows the software to be used indefinitely without recurring costs. This meets the requirement of a non-renewing, one-time capital expense.

Perpetual (Answer D): This is a one-time purchase and does not require renewal, making it ideal for capital expenditure.

Open-source (Option A): Open-source software is usually free but may not meet specific licensing requirements.

Subscription (Option B): This typically involves recurring payments, which contradicts the non-renewing expense requirement.

Volume (Option C): Volume licenses are used for purchasing multiple licenses at a discount but may still involve subscription-based renewals.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 2.1: Explain licensing concepts for software.

QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus): This transceiver type is designed specifically to handle 40Gbps network speeds. QSFP+ connectors are hot-swappable and support various cable types, including fiber optic and copper (DAC).

10GigE: While a valid network technology, 10GigE only supports up to 10Gbps, not the required 40Gbps.

SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A common transceiver type, but the standard SFP only supports a maximum of 1Gbps.

SFP+ (Enhanced Small Form-factor Pluggable): Supports up to 10Gbps, not sufficient for 40Gbps in this scenario.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives (Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Search for sections on networking standards and transceiver types.

Updating the firmware on the NIC is the most likely solution to fix the issue of a new 40GB NIC not being detected within the Windows server OS. Firmware is a software program that controls the functionality of a hardware device, such as a NIC (network interface card). A NIC is a device that enables network communication for a server by providing an interface between the server and the network cable or wireless connection. Updating the firmware on the NIC can improve its performance, compatibility, and stability with the server OS and network protocols. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

The first step when addressing an urgent issue like a database disconnection should be to gather information to understand what actions caused the problem. Collecting all logs and reviewing the technician's actions (Answer D) will help identify what went wrong and guide appropriate remediation. Restoring access quickly is the priority, and without reviewing logs, it would be hard to identify the root cause or prevent further damage.

Reverting patches (Option A): Reverting patches might cause more issues if the problem isn't directly related to a recent update.

Reproducing the issue (Option B): Reproduction is useful in a controlled environment but not practical as an immediate first step in production.

Root cause analysis (Option C): This is necessary but should come after restoring access.

Performing a quick backup (Option E): While backups are crucial, this step might not help resolve the current access problem and can delay troubleshooting.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 3.4: Explain troubleshooting theory and methodologies.

The most likely cause of this issue is that the printer had DHCP enabled, which changed its IP address after adding it to the print server and configuring it on each user’s machine. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices automatically, without manual intervention. DHCP can simplify network management and avoid IP conflicts, but it can also cause problems if the devices are not configured to use static or reserved IP addresses. If the printer had DHCP enabled, it might have received a different IP address from the DHCP server after rebooting or reconnecting to the network, which would make it unreachable by the print server and the users’ machines that were configured with the previous IP address. Scanning to email would still work, as it does not depend on the print server or the users’ machines, but on the printer’s SMTP settings and internet connection. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.l: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with all CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Study Guide References:Blanking panels are used to fill empty spaces in server racks. By blocking airflow gaps between servers, blanking panels help to direct airflow properly, ensuring that the cold air from the cold aisle is not wasted and that the hot air from the hot aisle is contained. This is crucial for maintaining the efficiency of cooling systems in a hot/cold aisle configuration.

Rack balancing addresses the physical distribution of equipment, but it does not directly address thermal issues.

Higher-capacity PDUs (Power Distribution Units) provide more power, but they do not address cooling or airflow problems.

Rail kits are used for mounting servers and are unrelated to cooling efficiency.

Phishing is a type of attack that is the most difficult to mitigate with technology. Phishing is a technique of deceiving users into revealing their personal or confidential information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank accounts, by sending them fraudulent emails or messages that appear to be from legitimate sources. Phishing relies on human factors, such as curiosity, greed, or fear, to trick users into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials on fake websites. Technology solutions, such as antivirus software, firewalls, or spam filters, can help detect and block some phishing attempts, but they cannot prevent users from falling victim to social engineering tactics. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.3: Given a scenario, explain methods and techniques to secure data.

Government regulations often dictate the legal requirements for data storage, privacy, and security, which can greatly impact the selection of a cloud provider. Compliance with regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, or other local laws is critical when choosing a cloud provider to avoid legal repercussions.

Government regulations (Answer B): Cloud providers must comply with legal and regulatory requirements, making this a significant factor in provider selection.

Industry standards (Option A): While important, standards can be more flexible and are often not legally binding.

Company policy (Option C): Internal policies are important but usually stem from the need to comply with regulations.

Organizational procedures (Option D): Procedures help guide operations but don’t typically dictate the choice of cloud providers.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.6: Explain the importance of cloud-based concepts and services.

A server has multiple fans inside the chassis to cool down the components and prevent overheating. If one of the fans fails, it can cause the server to reboot and crash due to thermal issues. A failed fan can also make loud noises due to friction or vibration. The administrator should check the fans and clean them from dust and debris, or replace them if they are damaged12.

References = 1: It’s Too Loud! 3 Solutions to Remedy Server Noise - Computerware Blog | DC Metro | Computerware 2: What factors affect the noise level of a server? - Server

Camouflage is an architectural reinforcement that is used to attempt to conceal the exterior of an organization. Camouflage is a technique of blending in with the surroundings or disguising the appearance of a building or facility to make it less noticeable or identifiable. Camouflage can reduce the visibility and attractiveness of a target for potential attackers or intruders. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, apply physical security methods to a server.

Scenario: Migrating a stand-alone application storing PII to the cloud.

Data to Encrypt: Data at rest (Option B) should be encrypted:

Data in transit (Option A) and backups (Option C) are also important but not the primary concern here.

Data archives (Option D) may or may not contain sensitive data.

 The hosts file is a file that maps hostnames to IP addresses on a server or a computer. It can be used to override or supplement the DNS (Domain Name System) resolution for certain hosts or domains. If the hosts file is misconfigured, it may return a different IP address for a hostname than the one registered in the DNS server, causing connectivity issues or errors. Verified References: [Hosts file], [DNS]

Open-source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone. It usually requires very little technical support and has no licensing fees. Therefore, it would be the lowest cost solution for an application that does not need much support. References: (Objective 2.3)

1U stands for one unit and it is a standard unit of measurement for rack-mounted servers. It is equal to 1.75 inches (4.45 cm) in height. A 42U rack can accommodate 42 1U servers or a combination of servers with different unit sizes. Therefore, the unit size per server should be 1U if there are 19 1U servers in a 42U rack. References: (Objective 1.2)

A per core licensing model is based on the number of processor cores in a server. This model is suitable for a data center that has a variable daily equipment count, as it allows for scaling up or down the number of cores as needed. A per core licensing model also provides better performance and efficiency than other models. Verified References: [Per Core Licensing and Basic Definitions]

The solution the administrator implemented extended runtime. Runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide backup power to a server in case of a power outage. By installing additional batteries in the UPS, the administrator increased the capacity and duration of the backup power, allowing the server more time to shut down properly.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.4, Objective 1.4

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that measures how much downtime an organization can tolerate during an unplanned outage before it affects its business continuity and reputation. RTO is usually expressed in hours or minutes and is determined by the criticality of the business processes and the impact of the outage on the revenue, customers, and stakeholders. RTO helps to define the recovery strategy and the resources needed to restore the normal operations as quickly as possible. Verified References: [RTO vs RPO]

CIFS (Common Internet File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing across different operating systems, such as Unix and Windows. It supports read and write access to files and folders on a network share. It is also known as SMB (Server Message Block). Verified References: [CIFS], [File sharing]

This is the most likely cause of the issue because firewall rules can block or allow traffic based on source, destination, port, protocol, or other criteria. If the firewall rules are not configured properly, they can prevent remote users from accessing the cloud application server, while allowing on-site users to access it. References:

The port that must remain open for a secure website is port 443. Port 443 is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), which is an extension of HTTP that encrypts and authenticates the communication between a web server and a web browser. HTTPS ensures that the data transmitted over the web is protected from eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. Therefore, port 443 must remain open for a secure website to function properly.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.2, Objective 2.2

Something you have is one of the types of authentication methods that relies on a physical object or device that the user possesses to verify their identity. A token is an example of something you have, as it is a small device that generates a one-time password or code that the user enters during login. A token can be a hardware device, such as a key fob or a smart card, or a software application, such as an app on a smartphone or a browser extension. A token provides an additional layer of security to the authentication process, as it prevents unauthorized access even if the user’s username and password are compromised1.

PowerShell is a scripting language and a command-line shell that is designed for Windows server administration. It can perform various tasks such as configuration, automation, and management of servers and applications. Verified References: [PowerShell], [Scripting language]

A loop is a programming construct that allows a block of code to be executed repeatedly until a certain condition is met1. A loop can be used to cycle through a list of servers and run a script on each one of them. For example, in Python, a loop can be written as:

Python

This code is AI-generated. Review and use carefully. Visit our FAQ for more information.

Copy

# Assume servers is a list of server names

for server in servers:

# Run the script on the server

run_script(server)

A loop can help automate the task of correcting the misconfiguration on all servers, saving time and effort.

Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical network links into one logical link with higher bandwidth and redundancy. It can take advantage of all the available bandwidth of the NICs (Network Interface Cards) on the server and provide load balancing and failover capabilities for network traffic. Verified References: [Link aggregation], [NIC]

A kernel upgrade is a process of updating the core component of a Linux operating system that manages the hardware, memory, processes, and drivers. A kernel upgrade can improve the performance, security, and compatibility of the system, but it can also introduce errors if some modules are not compatible with the new kernel version. Modules are pieces of code that can be loaded and unloaded into the kernel to provide additional functionality or support for specific devices. If a module is not compatible with the kernel, it can cause crashes or instability.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.2, Objective 4.2

The cache is a temporary storage area that holds frequently accessed data or instructions for faster retrieval. The cache can improve the read times for accessing files by reducing the need to access the hard drive, which is slower than the cache memory1. Therefore, the first step the technician should take is to check if the cache is turned on for the new file server. If the cache is turned off, the technician should enable it and see if the read times improve. The other options are incorrect because they are not the first steps to take. Adding more memory, installing faster hard drives, or enabling link aggregation are possible ways to improve the performance of the file server, but they are more costly and time-consuming than checking the cache. Moreover, they may not address the root cause of the problem if the cache is turned off.

A S.M.A.R.T. error is an indication of a potential failure of a hard drive. S.M.A.R.T. stands for Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology and it is a feature that monitors the health and performance of hard drives. A hard drive test can help diagnose the issue and determine if the drive needs to be replaced. References: (Objective 1.1)

A host firewall is a software that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a server based on predefined rules and filters. It can block or allow certain ports, protocols, or addresses that are used for communication with other servers or devices. If a server is unable to connect to another server after applying a patch, it is possible that the patch changed or added a firewall rule that prevents the connection. The administrator should check the host firewall rule and modify it if necessary to restore connectivity. Verified References: [Host firewall], [Network connection]

The most likely cause of this issue is that the UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a standard that defines the interface and functionality of the firmware that initializes the hardware and software components of a system before loading the operating system. UEFI boot is a process that uses UEFI firmware to load and execute a boot loader, which is a program that loads the operating system kernel and other essential files. A Linux boot file is a file that contains information and instructions for the boot loader, such as the location of the kernel, the root file system, and the boot parameters. If a Linux boot file is missing or corrupted, the boot loader cannot find or load the kernel, and the system stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an f prompt.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.1, Objective 4.1

Reflective glass is an architectural reinforcement that attempts to conceal the interior of an organization by reflecting light and preventing outsiders from seeing inside. Reflective glass can also reduce heat and glare, and enhance the aesthetic appearance of a building. Reflective glass is often used in high-security facilities, such as data centers, government buildings, or corporate headquarters12

1: Server Architecture for CompTIA Server+ (SK0-004) | Pluralsight 2: Introducing the CompTIA Infrastructure Career Pathway

JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) is a storage configuration that combines different types and sizes of hard drives into one logical unit without any RAID level or redundancy. It allows users to see all the drives within the unit as one large storage space. JBOD can utilize all the available capacity of the drives but does not provide any performance or fault tolerance benefits. Verified References: [JBOD], [RAID]

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple hard drives into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or capacity. RAID can be implemented by hardware, software, or a combination of both. Hardware RAID uses a dedicated controller to manage the RAID array, while software RAID uses the operating system or a driver to do the same1.

In this scenario, the technician noted that the RAID hard drives were functional while troubleshooting a motherboard failure. This means that the data on the drives was not corrupted or lost. However, the technician installed a spare motherboard with similar specifications and used the original components. This means that the new motherboard may not have the same RAID configuration as the old one, or it may not recognize the existing RAID array at all. Therefore, the technician needs to reconfigure the RAID in order to restore operations with minimal downtime.

A firewall is a network device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow certain types of packets, ports, protocols, or IP addresses. The output of the ping command shows that the local host is unreachable, which means that there is no network connectivity between the source and the destination. This could be caused by a firewall that is blocking the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) packets that ping uses to test the connectivity. References: (Objective 2.2)

A print backup is a type of backup that can be used to mitigate the risk of being unable to access the daily vital records if there is an IT disaster that causes both servers and the network to be offline. A print backup is a backup that involves printing out the data on paper and storing it in a secure location. A print backup can provide offline access to the data without relying on any hardware or software components that may be affected by the disaster. However, a print backup has some drawbacks such as high cost, low efficiency, low security, and environmental impact. A tape backup is a type of backup that involves storing the data on magnetic tape cartridges that can be accessed using a tape drive or a tape library. A tape backup can provide offline access to the data with high capacity, low cost, and long durability, but it requires special equipment and software that may not be available during a disaster. A cloud backup is a type of backup that involves storing the data on remote servers or platforms that can be accessed over the internet using a web browser or an application. A cloud backup can provide online access to the data with high scalability, flexibility, and security, but it requires network connectivity and bandwidth that may not be available during a disaster. A disk backup is a type of backup that involves storing the data on hard disk drives or solid state drives that can be accessed using a computer or a device. A disk backup can provide online or offline access to the data with high performance, reliability, and portability, but it requires compatible hardware and software that may not be available during a disaster. References: n-127

The most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party is customer data encryption and masking. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key or password. Masking is a process of hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or meaningless data. By encrypting and masking customer data, the organization can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure by the third party.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

This is the most likely cause of the issue because the keyboard LED flash indicates a POST error code. If the display card is not initialized, the system cannot show any error messages on the screen and will stop booting. References:

Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is a protocol that transfers files between servers and clients in cleartext, meaning that anyone can intercept and read the data. To stop this communication, port 21 should be closed on the web server and replaced with a secure protocol, such as SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) or FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), which use encryption to protect the data. Verified References: [FTP vs SFTP vs FTPS]

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) software is a type of security software that monitors and controls the transfer of sensitive or confidential data outside the organization. DLP software can prevent data breaches, data leaks, or data theft by blocking, encrypting, or alerting on unauthorized data transfers. DLP software can be applied to various channels, such as email, web, cloud, or removable devices.

In this scenario, the human resources analyst is attempting to email the records for new employees to an outside payroll company. The records for new employees may contain sensitive or confidential data, such as personal information, tax information, or bank account information. The DLP software may detect this data and block the email from being sent outside the company, as it may violate the company’s data protection policy or regulations. The DLP software may also generate an error message to inform the analyst of the reason for the rejection.

The chmod command is used to change the permissions of files and directories. The g+w option means to grant write permission to the group owner of the file. Since Joe is a member of the IT group, which is also the group owner of the file, this command will allow him to save changes to the file without affecting the permissions of other users. Verified References: [Linux chmod command]

RAID 10 is the RAID level that will yield the best combination of available space and redundancy when configuring a new server for use as a database server with two mirrored drives for the operating system and three drive bays remaining for storage. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 10 provides high performance, fault tolerance, and fast recovery, but it reduces storage capacity by half. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 1 is a RAID configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 5 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive’s worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. References: g-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/ at-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/

This is the least destructive method of resetting the administrator password because it does not require modifying any files or reinstalling the OS. It only requires changing the boot parameters temporarily and running a command to change the password. References:

Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue functioning in the event of a failure of one or more of its components. Fault tolerance can ensure a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails. Fault tolerance can be achieved by using redundant components, such as network cards, cables, switches, routers, etc., that can take over the function of the failed component without interrupting the service. References: (Objective 2.2)

RAID 6 is a level of RAID that can survive the failure of two drives without the loss of data. RAID 6 uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures and still provide data access and redundancy. RAID 0 is a level of RAID that uses striping without parity or mirroring, and offers no fault tolerance. RAID 0 cannot survive any drive failure without data loss. RAID 1 is a level of RAID that uses mirroring without parity or striping, and offers fault tolerance by duplicating data on two or more disks. RAID 1 can survive one drive failure without data loss, but not two. RAID 5 is a level of RAID that uses block-level striping with one parity block distributed across all member disks. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two. References:

The most likely cause of the server crashing and the application being inaccessible is that the unauthorized software installed by the update is malware that corrupted the system files or compromised the security of the server. To restore access to the application while minimizing downtime, the administrator should scan and remove any malware from the server, and then reformat the server and restore the image from the latest back-up. This will ensure that the server is clean and has a working configuration of the application. Verified References: [How to Remove Malware from a Server]

A blade server is a type of server that is installed in a chassis or an enclosure that provides power, cooling, networking, and management features. The blade server does not have any cables attached to it, as it connects to the chassis through a midplane or a backplane. A blade server can save space, energy, and cost compared to other types of servers. Verified References: [Blade server], [Chassis]

According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, the fourth step is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution1. The best practice is to test each solution individually to determine the root cause, rolling back the changes in between each test. This way, the technician can isolate the cause and avoid introducing new problems or making the situation worse. Testing each solution in succession and restoring the server from the latest snapshot (D) is not a good option because it may not identify the root cause and may overwrite important data. Implementing the shortest solution first to identify the issue and minimize downtime © is also not a good option because it may not solve the problem or may create new issues. Consulting internet forums to determine which is the most common cause and deploy only that solution (A) is not a good option because it may not apply to the specific situation or may be outdated or inaccurate

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention and it is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can help prevent data breaches, comply with regulations, and protect the privacy of customers and employees. DLP can also block, encrypt, or quarantine emails that contain sensitive data. References: (Objective 3.2)

The output of the configuration shows that RAID 5 was configured properly using four 200GB drives. The approximate volume size of 400GB is correct, since RAID 5 uses one disk for parity and the rest for data. Therefore, the usable storage capacity is three-fourths of the total capacity, which is 600GB out of 800GB. The other RAID levels given would result in different volume sizes: RAID 0 would result in 800GB, RAID 1 would result in 200GB, and JBOD would result in an error since it does not support multiple drives in a single volume. References:

A rack layout is a document that shows the physical location and arrangement of servers and other devices within a rack. It can include information such as server names, IP addresses, power consumption, and cable connections. A rack layout can help identify and locate servers easily and efficiently in a data center. Verified References: [Rack layout], [Data center]

Port 53 is the standard port for DNS (Domain Name System) queries and responses. DNS is a service that translates domain names (such as into IP addresses (such as 192.0.2.1) and vice versa.  DNS is essential for internet connectivity, as it allows users and applications to access websites and other online resources by using human-readable names instead of numerical addresses1.

The DNSSrv server is a DNS server that provides name resolution for the corporate network. If port 53 is blocked on this server, it will not be able to communicate with other DNS servers or clients, and the name resolution will fail. This will prevent users from accessing any websites or online services that rely on domain names, such as web browsers, email clients, or cloud applications. Therefore, port 53 must remain open on DNSSrv to allow DNS traffic to flow.

A crash cart is a mobile device that consists of a monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and a network connection. It can be used to access a physical server that is not responding to remote management software or does not have out-of-band management cards configured. The technician can connect the crash cart to the server using a VGA or HDMI cable and troubleshoot the server locally. Verified References: [Crash cart], [Out-of-band management]

Fibre Channel is a connectivity option that can transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection for SAN-based shared storage. Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology that provides reliable and secure data transfer between servers and storage devices. Fibre Channel uses optical fiber cables to connect devices and supports various topologies and protocols. FCoE is another connectivity option that uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet, which encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet packets. FCoE can also transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection, but it requires a converged network adapter (CNA) and a lossless Ethernet network. iSCSI is another connectivity option that uses SCSI commands over IP networks, which can use either copper or optical cables. iSCSI can transmit at 10Gb or 40Gb over an optical connection, but it has higher latency and lower performance than Fibre Channel. eSATA is another connectivity option that uses SATA commands over external cables, which are usually copper. eSATA can transmit at 6Gb over a copper connection, but it has limited cable length and device support compared to Fibre Channel. References:

Active-active is a configuration in which both nodes of a redundant system respond to service requests whenever possible. It can improve the performance, availability, and load balancing of the system by distributing the workload among the nodes. However, it also requires more synchronization and coordination between the nodes to avoid conflicts or errors. Verified References: [Active-active], [Redundant system]

A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that copies changed data from a server and then combines the backups on the backup target. This way, the backup target always has a full backup of the server, without requiring a full backup to be performed over the network. A synthetic full backup reduces the network bandwidth and time required for backups, while also simplifying the restoration process1

Cable management is the process of organizing, securing, and labeling cables in a server rack or cabinet. Cable management can help improve airflow and cooling, reduce clutter and confusion, prevent damage and interference, and enhance safety and aesthetics123. Cable management can be achieved by using various tools and accessories, such as cable trays, ties, hooks, clips, labels, ducts, and organizers12.

A cache battery is a battery that provides backup power to the cache memory of a disk array controller. The cache memory stores data that is waiting to be written to the disk array. If the cache battery fails, the data in the cache memory may be lost or corrupted when the power is interrupted. Verified References: [Cache battery], [Disk array controller]

PowerShell is a scripting language and a command-line shell that uses commands that start with sec- to perform security-related tasks. For example, sec-edit is a command that edits security policies, sec-logon is a command that manages logon sessions, and sec-policy is a command that applies security templates. Verified References: [PowerShell security commands], [Security policy]

A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that combines a full backup with one or more incremental backups to create a new full backup without accessing the source data. This type of backup is suitable for database servers, as it reduces the backup window, minimizes the impact on the server performance, and provides faster recovery time. Verified References: [Synthetic Full Backup]