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ECCouncil 712-50 EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Exam Practice Test

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Total 461 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question 2

Which of the following can the company implement in order to avoid this type of security issue in the future?

Options:

A.

Network based intrusion detection systems

B.

A security training program for developers

C.

A risk management process

D.

A audit management process

Question 3

You are the CISO of a commercial social media organization. The leadership wants to rapidly create new methods of sharing customer data through creative linkages with mobile devices. You have voiced concern about privacy regulations but the velocity of the business is given priority. Which of the following BEST describes this organization?

Options:

A.

Risk averse

B.

Risk tolerant

C.

Risk conditional

D.

Risk minimal

Question 4

An example of professional unethical behavior is:

Options:

A.

Gaining access to an affiliated employee’s work email account as part of an officially sanctioned internal investigation

B.

Sharing copyrighted material with other members of a professional organization where all members have legitimate access to the material

C.

Copying documents from an employer’s server which you assert that you have an intellectual property claim to possess, but the company disputes

D.

Storing client lists and other sensitive corporate internal documents on a removable thumb drive

Question 5

Which of the following represents the BEST method of ensuring security program alignment to business needs?

Options:

A.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

B.

Create security consortiums, such as strategic security planning groups, that include business unit participation

C.

Ensure security implementations include business unit testing and functional validation prior to production rollout

D.

Ensure the organization has strong executive-level security representation through clear sponsorship or the creation of a CISO role

Question 6

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question 7

Your company has a “no right to privacy” notice on all logon screens for your information systems and users sign an Acceptable Use Policy informing them of this condition. A peer group member and friend comes to you and requests access to one of her employee’s email account. What should you do? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Grant her access, the employee has been adequately warned through the AUP.

B.

Assist her with the request, but only after her supervisor signs off on the action.

C.

Reset the employee’s password and give it to the supervisor.

D.

Deny the request citing national privacy laws.

Question 8

To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

Stakeholder support

D.

Extend work hours

Question 9

A CISO has recently joined an organization with a poorly implemented security program. The desire is to base the security program on a risk management approach. Which of the following is a foundational requirement in order to initiate this type of program?

Options:

A.

A security organization that is adequately staffed to apply required mitigation strategies and regulatory compliance solutions

B.

A clear set of security policies and procedures that are more concept-based than controls-based

C.

A complete inventory of Information Technology assets including infrastructure, networks, applications and data

D.

A clearly identified executive sponsor who will champion the effort to ensure organizational buy-in

Question 10

How often should the SSAE16 report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Annually

D.

Bi-annually

Question 11

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

Question 12

Your incident response plan should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Procedures for litigation

B.

Procedures for reclamation

C.

Procedures for classification

D.

Procedures for charge-back

Question 13

Which of the following is critical in creating a security program aligned with an organization’s goals?

Options:

A.

Ensure security budgets enable technical acquisition and resource allocation based on internal compliance requirements

B.

Develop a culture in which users, managers and IT professionals all make good decisions about information risk

C.

Provide clear communication of security program support requirements and audit schedules

D.

Create security awareness programs that include clear definition of security program goals and charters

Question 14

The security team has investigated the theft/loss of several unencrypted laptop computers containing sensitive corporate information. To prevent the loss of any additional corporate data it is unilaterally decided by the CISO that all existing and future laptop computers will be encrypted. Soon, the help desk is flooded with complaints about the slow performance of the laptops and users are upset. What did the CISO do wrong? (choose the BEST answer):

Options:

A.

Failed to identify all stakeholders and their needs

B.

Deployed the encryption solution in an inadequate manner

C.

Used 1024 bit encryption when 256 bit would have sufficed

D.

Used hardware encryption instead of software encryption

Question 15

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question 16

Which of the following functions implements and oversees the use of controls to reduce risk when creating an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Incident Response

C.

Risk Management

D.

Network Security administration

Question 17

Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?

Options:

A.

Overly restrictive management

B.

Excessive personnel on project

C.

Failure to meet project deadlines

D.

Insufficient resources

Question 18

Risk appetite is typically determined by which of the following organizational functions?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Business units

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Audit and compliance

Question 19

When managing the critical path of an IT security project, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Knowing who all the stakeholders are.

B.

Knowing the people on the data center team.

C.

Knowing the threats to the organization.

D.

Knowing the milestones and timelines of deliverables.

Question 20

Knowing the potential financial loss an organization is willing to suffer if a system fails is a determination of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost benefit

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Business continuity

D.

Likelihood of impact

Question 21

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

Question 22

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 23

A CISO implements smart cards for credential management, and as a result has reduced costs associated with help desk operations supporting password resets. This demonstrates which of the following principles?

Options:

A.

Security alignment to business goals

B.

Regulatory compliance effectiveness

C.

Increased security program presence

D.

Proper organizational policy enforcement

Question 24

Which of the following are not stakeholders of IT security projects?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Third party vendors

C.

CISO

D.

Help Desk

Question 25

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

Question 26

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 27

In effort to save your company money which of the following methods of training results in the lowest cost for the organization?

Options:

A.

Distance learning/Web seminars

B.

Formal Class

C.

One-One Training

D.

Self –Study (noncomputerized)

Question 28

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

Question 29

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?

Options:

A.

Validate the effectiveness of applied controls

B.

Validate security program resource requirements

C.

Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders

D.

Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings

Question 30

Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.

You have decided to deal with risk to information from people first. How can you minimize risk to your most sensitive information before granting access?

Options:

A.

Conduct background checks on individuals before hiring them

B.

Develop an Information Security Awareness program

C.

Monitor employee browsing and surfing habits

D.

Set your firewall permissions aggressively and monitor logs regularly.

Question 31

Which of the following is used to lure attackers into false environments so they can be monitored, contained, or blocked from reaching critical systems?

Options:

A.

Segmentation controls.

B.

Shadow applications.

C.

Deception technology.

D.

Vulnerability management.

Question 32

A newly-hired CISO needs to understand the organization’s financial management standards for business units

and operations. Which of the following would be the best source of this information?

Options:

A.

The internal accounting department

B.

The Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

C.

The external financial audit service

D.

The managers of the accounts payables and accounts receivables teams

Question 33

Which of the following is a primary method of applying consistent configurations to IT systems?

Options:

A.

Audits

B.

Administration

C.

Patching

D.

Templates

Question 34

Which of the following provides an independent assessment of a vendor’s internal security controls and overall posture?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business goals

B.

ISO27000 accreditation

C.

PCI attestation of compliance

D.

Financial statements

Question 35

Which technology can provide a computing environment without requiring a dedicated hardware backend?

Options:

A.

Mainframe server

B.

Virtual Desktop

C.

Thin client

D.

Virtual Local Area Network

Question 36

Which of the following best describes revenue?

Options:

A.

Non-operating financial liabilities minus expenses

B.

The true profit-making potential of an organization

C.

The sum value of all assets and cash flow into the business

D.

The economic benefit derived by operating a business

Question 37

Which of the following information would MOST likely be reported at the board-level within an organization?

Options:

A.

System scanning trends and results as they pertain to insider and external threat sources

B.

The capabilities of a security program in terms of staffing support

C.

Significant risks and security incidents that have been discovered since the last assembly of the

membership

D.

The numbers and types of cyberattacks experienced by the organization since the last assembly of the

membership

Question 38

Annual Loss Expectancy is derived from the function of which two factors?

Options:

A.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Asset Value

B.

Single Loss Expectancy and Exposure Factor

C.

Safeguard Value and Annual Rate of Occurrence

D.

Annual Rate of Occurrence and Single Loss Expectancy

Question 39

When creating contractual agreements and procurement processes why should security requirements be included?

Options:

A.

To make sure they are added on after the process is completed

B.

To make sure the costs of security is included and understood

C.

To make sure the security process aligns with the vendor’s security process

D.

To make sure the patching process is included with the costs

Question 40

At what level of governance are individual projects monitored and managed?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Milestone

C.

Enterprise

D.

Portfolio

Question 41

Which of the following would negatively impact a log analysis of a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

Centralized log management

B.

Encrypted log files in transit

C.

Each node set to local time

D.

Log aggregation agent each node

Question 42

As the CISO you need to write the IT security strategic plan. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before you start writing the plan?

Options:

A.

The existing IT environment.

B.

The company business plan.

C.

The present IT budget.

D.

Other corporate technology trends.

Question 43

Which of the following best describes a portfolio?

Options:

A.

The portfolio is used to manage and track individual projects

B.

The portfolio is used to manage incidents and events

C.

A portfolio typically consists of several programs

D.

A portfolio delivers one specific service or program to the business

Question 44

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

B.

The NPV of the project is negative

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is larger than 10 months

D.

The ROI is lower than 10 months

Question 45

A CISO has implemented a risk management capability within the security portfolio. Which of the following

terms best describes this functionality?

Options:

A.

Service

B.

Program

C.

Portfolio

D.

Cost center

Question 46

When project costs continually increase throughout implementation due to large or rapid changes in customer

or user requirements, this is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

Cost/benefit adjustments

B.

Scope creep

C.

Prototype issues

D.

Expectations management

Question 47

SCENARIO: A CISO has several two-factor authentication systems under review and selects the one that is most sufficient and least costly. The implementation project planning is completed and the teams are ready to implement the solution. The CISO then discovers that the product it is not as scalable as originally thought and will not fit the organization’s needs.

What is the MOST logical course of action the CISO should take?

Options:

A.

Review the original solution set to determine if another system would fit the organization’s risk appetite and budget

regulatory compliance requirements

B.

Continue with the implementation and submit change requests to the vendor in order to ensure required functionality will be provided when needed

C.

Continue with the project until the scalability issue is validated by others, such as an auditor or third party assessor

D.

Cancel the project if the business need was based on internal requirements versus regulatory compliance requirements

Question 48

The total cost of security controls should:

Options:

A.

Be equal to the value of the information resource being protected

B.

Be greater than the value of the information resource being protected

C.

Be less than the value of the information resource being protected

D.

Should not matter, as long as the information resource is protected

Question 49

Scenario: Your corporate systems have been under constant probing and attack from foreign IP addresses for more than a week. Your security team and security infrastructure have performed well under the stress. You are confident that your defenses have held up under the test, but rumors are spreading that sensitive customer data has been stolen and is now being sold on the Internet by criminal elements. During your investigation of the rumored compromise you discover that data has been breached and you have discovered the repository of stolen data on a server located in a foreign country. Your team now has full access to the data on the foreign server.

What action should you take FIRST?

Options:

A.

Destroy the repository of stolen data

B.

Contact your local law enforcement agency

C.

Consult with other C-Level executives to develop an action plan

D.

Contract with a credit reporting company for paid monitoring services for affected customers

Question 50

What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?

Options:

A.

To estimate risk and negate liability to the company

B.

To understand the attack vectors and attack sources

C.

To communicate risk and forecast resource needs

D.

To forecast usage and cost per software licensing

Question 51

Scenario: As you begin to develop the program for your organization, you assess the corporate culture and determine that there is a pervasive opinion that the security program only slows things down and limits the performance of the “real workers.”

Which group of people should be consulted when developing your security program?

Options:

A.

Peers

B.

End Users

C.

Executive Management

D.

All of the above

Question 52

Which of the following is an accurate description of a balance sheet?

Options:

A.

The percentage of earnings that are retained by the organization for reinvestment in the business

B.

The details of expenses and revenue over a long period of time

C.

A summarized statement of all assets and liabilities at a specific point in time

D.

A review of regulations and requirements impacting the business from a financial perspective

Question 53

Scenario: Your company has many encrypted telecommunications links for their world-wide operations. Physically distributing symmetric keys to all locations has proven to be administratively burdensome, but symmetric keys are preferred to other alternatives.

Symmetric encryption in general is preferable to asymmetric encryption when:

Options:

A.

The number of unique communication links is large

B.

The volume of data being transmitted is small

C.

The speed of the encryption / deciphering process is essential

D.

The distance to the end node is farthest away

Question 54

SCENARIO: A CISO has several two-factor authentication systems under review and selects the one that is most sufficient and least costly. The implementation project planning is completed and the teams are ready to implement the solution. The CISO then discovers that the product it is not as scalable as originally thought and will not fit the organization’s needs.

The CISO is unsure of the information provided and orders a vendor proof of concept to validate the system’s scalability. This demonstrates which of the following?

Options:

A.

An approach that allows for minimum budget impact if the solution is unsuitable

B.

A methodology-based approach to ensure authentication mechanism functions

C.

An approach providing minimum time impact to the implementation schedules

D.

A risk-based approach to determine if the solution is suitable for investment

Question 55

As the Business Continuity Coordinator of a financial services organization, you are responsible for ensuring assets are recovered timely in the event of a disaster. Which is the BEST Disaster Recovery performance indicator to validate that you are prepared for a disaster?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Disaster Recovery Plan

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Business Continuity Plan

Question 56

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

Which of the following is the FIRST action the CISO will perform after receiving the audit report?

Options:

A.

Inform peer executives of the audit results

B.

Validate gaps and accept or dispute the audit findings

C.

Create remediation plans to address program gaps

D.

Determine if security policies and procedures are adequate

Question 57

Risk is defined as:

Options:

A.

Threat times vulnerability divided by control

B.

Advisory plus capability plus vulnerability

C.

Asset loss times likelihood of event

D.

Quantitative plus qualitative impact

Question 58

The CIO of an organization has decided to assign the responsibility of internal IT audit to the IT team. This is consider a bad practice MAINLY because

Options:

A.

The IT team is not familiar in IT audit practices

B.

This represents a bad implementation of the Least Privilege principle

C.

This represents a conflict of interest

D.

The IT team is not certified to perform audits

Question 59

In accordance with best practices and international standards, how often is security awareness training provided to employees of an organization?

Options:

A.

High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months

B.

Every 12 months

C.

Every 18 months

D.

Every six months

Question 60

As a new CISO at a large healthcare company you are told that everyone has to badge in to get in the building. Below your office window you notice a door that is normally propped open during the day for groups of people to take breaks outside. Upon looking closer you see there is no badge reader. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing, this falls outside your area of influence.

B.

Close and chain the door shut and send a company-wide memo banning the practice.

C.

Have a risk assessment performed.

D.

Post a guard at the door to maintain physical security

Question 61

Which of the following are primary concerns for management with regard to assessing internal control objectives?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, Availability, Integrity

B.

Compliance, Effectiveness, Efficiency

C.

Communication, Reliability, Cost

D.

Confidentiality, Compliance, Cost

Question 62

The PRIMARY objective for information security program development should be:

Options:

A.

Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.

B.

Establishing strategic alignment with bunsiness continuity requirements

C.

Establishing incident response programs.

D.

Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.

Question 63

The FIRST step in establishing a security governance program is to?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Obtain senior level sponsorship.

C.

Conduct a workshop for all end users.

D.

Prepare a security budget.

Question 64

The patching and monitoring of systems on a consistent schedule is required by?

Options:

A.

Local privacy laws

B.

Industry best practices

C.

Risk Management frameworks

D.

Audit best practices

Question 65

When managing an Information Security Program, which of the following is of MOST importance in order to influence the culture of an organization?

Options:

A.

An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization

B.

Alignment of security goals with business goals

C.

Compliance with local privacy regulations

D.

Support from Legal and HR teams

Question 66

When a CISO considers delaying or not remediating system vulnerabilities which of the following are MOST important to take into account?

Options:

A.

Threat Level, Risk of Compromise, and Consequences of Compromise

B.

Risk Avoidance, Threat Level, and Consequences of Compromise

C.

Risk Transfer, Reputational Impact, and Consequences of Compromise

D.

Reputational Impact, Financial Impact, and Risk of Compromise

Question 67

You have recently drafted a revised information security policy. From whom should you seek endorsement in order to have the GREATEST chance for adoption and implementation throughout the entire organization?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer

B.

Chief Executive Officer

C.

Chief Information Officer

D.

Chief Legal Counsel

Question 68

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27002 standard?

Options:

A.

To give information security management recommendations to those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization.

B.

To provide a common basis for developing organizational security standards

C.

To provide effective security management practice and to provide confidence in inter-organizational dealings

D.

To established guidelines and general principles for initiating, implementing, maintaining, and improving information security management within an organization

Question 69

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to measure the effectiveness of security controls on a perimeter network?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability scan of the network

B.

External penetration testing by a qualified third party

C.

Internal Firewall ruleset reviews

D.

Implement network intrusion prevention systems

Question 70

Which of the following functions MUST your Information Security Governance program include for formal organizational reporting?

Options:

A.

Audit and Legal

B.

Budget and Compliance

C.

Human Resources and Budget

D.

Legal and Human Resources

Question 71

What should an organization do to ensure that they have a sound Business Continuity (BC) Plan?

Options:

A.

Test every three years to ensure that things work as planned

B.

Conduct periodic tabletop exercises to refine the BC plan

C.

Outsource the creation and execution of the BC plan to a third party vendor

D.

Conduct a Disaster Recovery (DR) exercise every year to test the plan

Question 72

You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to quickly identify high-level risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis

B.

Quantitative analysis

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Estimate activity duration

Question 73

The alerting, monitoring and life-cycle management of security related events is typically handled by the

Options:

A.

security threat and vulnerability management process

B.

risk assessment process

C.

risk management process

D.

governance, risk, and compliance tools

Question 74

Which of the following represents the BEST reason for an organization to use the Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT) as an Information Technology (IT) framework?

Options:

A.

It allows executives to more effectively monitor IT implementation costs

B.

Implementation of it eases an organization’s auditing and compliance burden

C.

Information Security (IS) procedures often require augmentation with other standards

D.

It provides for a consistent and repeatable staffing model for technology organizations

Question 75

Which of the following intellectual Property components is focused on maintaining brand recognition?

Options:

A.

Trademark

B.

Patent

C.

Research Logs

D.

Copyright

Question 76

Which of the following is a benefit of a risk-based approach to audit planning?

Options:

A.

Resources are allocated to the areas of the highest concern

B.

Scheduling may be performed months in advance

C.

Budgets are more likely to be met by the IT audit staff

D.

Staff will be exposed to a variety of technologies

Question 77

One of the MAIN goals of a Business Continuity Plan is to

Options:

A.

Ensure all infrastructure and applications are available in the event of a disaster

B.

Allow all technical first-responders to understand their roles in the event of a disaster

C.

Provide step by step plans to recover business processes in the event of a disaster

D.

Assign responsibilities to the technical teams responsible for the recovery of all data.

Question 78

Quantitative Risk Assessments have the following advantages over qualitative risk assessments:

Options:

A.

They are objective and can express risk / cost in real numbers

B.

They are subjective and can be completed more quickly

C.

They are objective and express risk / cost in approximates

D.

They are subjective and can express risk /cost in real numbers

Question 79

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to measure the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Options:

A.

Meet regulatory compliance requirements

B.

Better understand the threats and vulnerabilities affecting the environment

C.

Better understand strengths and weaknesses of the program

D.

Meet legal requirements

Question 80

When you develop your audit remediation plan what is the MOST important criteria?

Options:

A.

To remediate half of the findings before the next audit.

B.

To remediate all of the findings before the next audit.

C.

To validate that the cost of the remediation is less than the risk of the finding.

D.

To validate the remediation process with the auditor.

Question 81

Which of the following should be determined while defining risk management strategies?

Options:

A.

Organizational objectives and risk tolerance

B.

Risk assessment criteria

C.

IT architecture complexity

D.

Enterprise disaster recovery plans

Question 82

An information security department is required to remediate system vulnerabilities when they are discovered. Please select the three primary remediation methods that can be used on an affected system.

Options:

A.

Install software patch, Operate system, Maintain system

B.

Discover software, Remove affected software, Apply software patch

C.

Install software patch, configuration adjustment, Software Removal

D.

Software removal, install software patch, maintain system

Question 83

A security officer wants to implement a vulnerability scanning program. The officer is uncertain of the state of vulnerability resiliency within the organization’s large IT infrastructure. What would be the BEST approach to minimize scan data output while retaining a realistic view of system vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Scan a representative sample of systems

B.

Perform the scans only during off-business hours

C.

Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings

D.

Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed

Question 84

To have accurate and effective information security policies how often should the CISO review the organization policies?

Options:

A.

Every 6 months

B.

Quarterly

C.

Before an audit

D.

At least once a year

Question 85

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 86

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 87

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 88

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 89

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 90

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 91

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 92

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 93

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 94

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 95

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 96

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 97

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 98

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 99

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question 100

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 101

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 102

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 103

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 104

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 105

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 106

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 107

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 108

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 109

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 110

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 111

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 112

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 113

A CISO must conduct risk assessments using a method where the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) receives impact data in financial terms to use as input to select the proper level of coverage in a new cybersecurity insurance policy.

What is the MOST effective method of risk analysis to provide the CFO with the information required?

Options:

A.

Conduct a quantitative risk assessment

B.

Conduct a hybrid risk assessment

C.

Conduct a subjective risk assessment

D.

Conduct a qualitative risk assessment

Question 114

What is the MOST critical output of the incident response process?

Options:

A.

A complete document of all involved team members and the support they provided

B.

Recovery of all data from affected systems

C.

Lessons learned from the incident, so they can be incorporated into the incident response processes

D.

Clearly defined documents detailing standard evidence collection and preservation processes

Question 115

The Board of Directors of a publicly-traded company is concerned about the security implications of a strategic project that will migrate 50% of the organization’s information technology assets to the cloud. They have requested a briefing on the project plan and a progress report of the security stream of the project. As the CISO, you have been tasked with preparing the report for the Chief Executive Officer to present.

Using the Earned Value Management (EVM), what does a Cost Variance (CV) of -1,200 mean?

Options:

A.

The project is over budget

B.

The project budget has reserves

C.

The project cost is in alignment with the budget

D.

The project is under budget

Question 116

You have been promoted to the CISO of a retail store. Which of the following compliance standards is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

Question 117

What is a Statement of Objectives (SOA)?

Options:

A.

A section of a contract that defines tasks to be performed under said contract

B.

An outline of what the military will do during war

C.

A document that outlines specific desired outcomes as part of a request for proposal

D.

Business guidance provided by the CEO

Question 118

With a focus on the review and approval aspects of board responsibilities, the Data Governance Council recommends that the boards provide strategic oversight regarding information and information security, include these four things:

Options:

A.

Metrics tracking security milestones, understanding criticality of information and information security, visibility into the types of information and how it is used, endorsement by the board of directors

B.

Annual security training for all employees, continual budget reviews, endorsement of the development and implementation of a security program, metrics to track the program

C.

Understanding criticality of information and information security, review investment in information security, endorse development and implementation of a security program, and require regular reports on adequacy and effectiveness

D.

Endorsement by the board of directors for security program, metrics of security program milestones, annual budget review, report on integration and acceptance of program

Question 119

Who should be involved in the development of an internal campaign to address email phishing?

Options:

A.

Business unit leaders, CIO, CEO

B.

Business Unite Leaders, CISO, CIO and CEO

C.

All employees

D.

CFO, CEO, CIO

Question 120

A Security Operations (SecOps) Manager is considering implementing threat hunting to be able to make better decisions on protecting information and assets.

What is the MAIN goal of threat hunting to the SecOps Manager?

Options:

A.

Improve discovery of valid detected events

B.

Enhance tuning of automated tools to detect and prevent attacks

C.

Replace existing threat detection strategies

D.

Validate patterns of behavior related to an attack

Question 121

A bastion host should be placed:

Options:

A.

Inside the DMZ

B.

In-line with the data center firewall

C.

Beyond the outer perimeter firewall

D.

As the gatekeeper to the organization’s honeynet

Question 122

What does RACI stand for?

Options:

A.

Reasonable, Actionable, Controlled, and Implemented

B.

Responsible, Actors, Consult, and Instigate

C.

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed

D.

Review, Act, Communicate, and Inform

Question 123

Optical biometric recognition such as retina scanning provides access to facilities through reading the unique characteristics of a person’s eye.

However, authorization failures can occur with individuals who have?

Options:

A.

Glaucoma or cataracts

B.

Two different colored eyes (heterochromia iridium)

C.

Contact lens

D.

Malaria

Question 124

The alerting, monitoring, and lifecycle management of security-related events are typically managed by the:

Options:

A.

Security controls group

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance tools

C.

Security Threat and vulnerability management process

D.

Risk assessment process

Question 125

As the CISO, you are the project sponsor for a highly visible log management project. The objective of the project is to centralize all the enterprise logs into a security information and event management (SIEM) system. You requested the results of the performance quality audits activity.

The performance quality audit activity is done in what project management process group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Question 126

When reviewing a Solution as a Service (SaaS) provider’s security health and posture, which key document should you review?

Options:

A.

SaaS provider’s website certifications and representations (certs and reps)

B.

SOC-2 Report

C.

Metasploit Audit Report

D.

Statement from SaaS provider attesting their ability to secure your data

Question 127

Which of the following provides the BEST approach to achieving positive outcomes while preserving savings?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Economic impact analysis

D.

Return on Investment

Question 128

You have been promoted to the CISO of a big-box retail store chain reporting to the Chief Information Officer (CIO). The CIO’s first mandate to you is to develop a cybersecurity compliance framework that will meet all the store’s compliance requirements.

Which of the following compliance standard is the MOST important to the organization?

Options:

A.

The Federal Risk and Authorization Management Program (FedRAMP)

B.

ISO 27002

C.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standard (DSS)

Question 129

From the CISO’s perspective in looking at financial statements, the statement of retained earnings of an organization:

Options:

A.

Has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

B.

Represents, in part, the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

C.

Represents the sum of all capital expenditures

D.

Represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

Question 130

The primary responsibility for assigning entitlements to a network share lies with which role?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Data owner

C.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

D.

Security system administrator

Question 131

When information security falls under the Chief Information Officer (CIO), what is their MOST essential role?

Options:

A.

Oversees the organization’s day-to-day operations, creating the policies and strategies that govern operations

B.

Enlisting support from key executives the information security program budget and policies

C.

Charged with developing and implementing policies designed to protect employees and customers’ data from unauthorized access

D.

Responsible for the success or failure of the IT organization and setting strategic direction

Question 132

As the Risk Manager of an organization, you are task with managing vendor risk assessments. During the assessment, you identified that the vendor is engaged with high profiled clients, and bad publicity can jeopardize your own brand.

Which is the BEST type of risk that defines this event?

Options:

A.

Compliance Risk

B.

Reputation Risk

C.

Operational Risk

D.

Strategic Risk

Question 133

The ability to require implementation and management of security controls within third-party provided services is a critical part of:

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery

B.

Vendor management

C.

Security Governance

D.

Compliance management

Question 134

You have been hired as the Information System Security Officer (ISSO) for a US federal government agency. Your role is to ensure the security posture of the system is maintained. One of your tasks is to develop and maintain the system security plan (SSP) and supporting documentation.

Which of the following is NOT documented in the SSP?

Options:

A.

The controls in place to secure the system

B.

Name of the connected system

C.

The results of a third-party audits and recommendations

D.

Type of information used in the system

Question 135

Which of the following strategies provides the BEST response to a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Real-time off-site replication

B.

Daily incremental backup

C.

Daily full backup

D.

Daily differential backup

Question 136

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 137

The main purpose of the SOC is:

Options:

A.

An organization which provides Tier 1 support for technology issues and provides escalation when needed

B.

A distributed organization which provides intelligence to governments and private sectors on cyber-criminal activities

C.

The coordination of personnel, processes and technology to identify information security events and provide timely response and remediation

D.

A device which consolidates event logs and provides real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware

Question 138

To make sure that the actions of all employees, applications, and systems follow the organization’s rules and regulations can BEST be described as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Compliance management

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Security management

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Total 461 questions