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EMC D-ISM-FN-23 Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 189 questions

Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

What is a benefit of unified storage systems?

Options:

A.

Provides the capability to separately plan the capacity consumption of object-based data

B.

Eliminates the need to use SATA disk drives to store less valued data

C.

Enables rapid development of modern applications by using a common storage pool

D.

Increases the overall storage capacity utilization with no stranded capacity

Question 2

An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution in their data center environment They are concerned about the application servers' performance and a long backup window during backups. However, they want to retain their existing backup application.

Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended?

Options:

A.

Target-based deduplication

B.

Source-based with variable-length deduplication

C.

Source-based with fixed-length block deduplication

D.

Source-based global deduplication

Question 3

What is true about Storage Class Memory (SCM)?

Options:

A.

SCM is slower than DRAM but read and write speeds are faster than flash.

B.

SCM adds a new tier of SAS performance at memory-like cost.

C.

SCM read and write speeds are slower than hard disk drives.

D.

SCM is faster than cache memory but slower than solid state drives.

Question 4

Based on the exhibit, what does the “X” represent?

Options:

A.

NACK SYN

B.

ACK SYN

C.

SYN NACK

D.

SYN ACK

Question 5

Which set of factors govern the overall performance of a hard disk drive?

Options:

A.

Seek time

Rotational latency Data transfer rate

B.

Seek time

Rotational latency Bandwidth

C.

Seek time

Rotational latency RAID level

D.

Seek time

Rotational latency

I/O operations per second

Question 6

Which method automatically allocates a large capacity secondary cache using SSD and SCM?

Options:

A.

Cache provisioning

B.

Volatile cache

C.

Cache tiering

D.

Non-volatile cache

Question 7

An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours; from Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 5 occurs as follows:

Tuesday = 6 AM to 7 AM Thursday = 5 PM to 9 PM Friday = 8 AM to 9 AM

What is the MTBF of Port 5?

Options:

A.

30 hours

B.

32 hours

C.

40 hours

D.

38 hours

Question 8

What occurs when a company’s IT infrastructure security is breached by a passive attack?

Options:

A.

data is altered by an unauthorized user

B.

unauthorized system access is obtained

C.

access to services is denied

D.

availability of data is affected

Question 9

Which block storage device protocol achieves the optimal cost-effective balance between I/O performance and high storage capacity for midrange storage applications?

Options:

A.

SAS

B.

NVMe

C.

SATA

D.

SSD

Question 10

A user lost access to a key VM due to a hardware failure. A proxy server regularly takes PIT snapshots of the VM to protect the data.

What type of data protection method is this called'?

Options:

A.

Agent-based

B.

Backup as a service

C.

Local replication

D.

Image-based

Question 11

Which option shows the correct sequence of steps to perform a data recovery operation?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 12

The Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 4 occurs as follows:

Monday = 8 PM to 11 PM -

Wednesday = 7 PM to 10 PM -

Thursday = 6 AM to 12 PM -

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

Options:

A.

28 hours

B.

2 hours

C.

38 hours

D.

4 hours

Question 13

A company finance department needs 250 GB of storage for their business applications. A LUN is created with 250 GB, and RAID 1 protection. The LUN is configured to support application I/O performance.

If storage cost is $2 per GB, what is the chargeback amount to the department for application storage?

Options:

A.

$1000

B.

$ 2000

C.

$500

D.

$250

Question 14

What is an accurate statement about governance?

Options:

A.

Creates the policies and enforces their adherence

B.

Ensures removal of data security vulnerabilities

C.

Determines strategy and operational rules by which companies are directed and managed

D.

Restricts access privileges to certain legitimate users to avoid IT managed resource conflicts

Question 15

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 8 AM to 8 PM, Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 2 occurs on a particular week as follows:

Monday = 10 AM to 12 PM Wednesday = 4 PM to 9 PM Thursday = 4 PM to 7 PM

Friday = 3 PM to 6 PM Saturday = 9 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 2 in that week?

Options:

A.

70%

B.

71.6%

C.

78.3%

D.

80%

Question 16

Which is a characteristic of RAID 6?

Options:

A.

Double parity

B.

Single parity

C.

All parity stored on a single disk

D.

Parity not used

Question 17

Which process eliminates data redundancy in a data set?

Options:

A.

Data archiving

B.

Data replication

C.

Data migration

D.

Data deduplication

Question 18

What information is available in a capacity planning report for storage infrastructure?

Options:

A.

number of units of storage available, used and the cost

B.

current and historic information about the utilization of storage, file systems, and ports

C.

equipment purchase dates, licenses, lease status, and maintenance records

D.

current and historical performance information about IT components and operations

Question 19

Which network performance attribute is achieved when using flow control in FOP?

Options:

A.

In-order packet delivery

B.

IP network congestion detection and handling

C.

Eliminate IP packet fragmentation

D.

IP packet collision detection and handling

Question 20

Which Dell EMC product is designed to host both file and object data?

Options:

A.

PowerEdge

B.

PowerScale

C.

PowerVault

D.

Cloud Tiering Appliance

Question 21

Refer to the Exhibit:

What type of process, when performed on data, would produce the result shown?

Options:

A.

Replication

B.

Deduplication

C.

Archive

D.

Migration

Question 22

What accurately describes an object-based storage device (OSD)?

Options:

A.

One object can be placed inside another object

B.

Objects are created based on the name and location of the file

C.

Objects exist at the same level in the address space

D.

Numerous objects can be stored in a single namespace

Question 23

How is NVMe used to connect a host to M.2 storage devices?

Options:

A.

through an embedded PCIe controller

B.

through a PCIe bus FC HBA card

C.

through a PCIe bus card

D.

through an embedded FC HBA controller

Question 24

In a NAS environment, which file system enables file sharing with Windows clients and uses the TCP/IP protocol?

Options:

A.

New Technology File System (NTFS)

B.

Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)

C.

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

D.

Network File System (NFS)

Question 25

What type of technology is used in SSD devices to provide non-volatile data storage?

Options:

A.

Static RAM

B.

Dynamic RAM memory

C.

Flash memory

D.

Programmable read-only memory

Question 26

An organization is planning to secure the connection between the data center and cloud while performing data backup and replication.

Which security control mechanism will help organization to achieve the desired security?

Options:

A.

ldentity and Access management

B.

Intrusion Detection and Prevention

C.

Firewall

D.

Virtual Private Network

Question 27

What triggers an appropriate workflow upon receiving a service provisioning or management request?

Options:

A.

Alerts

B.

Orchestrated operations

C.

Recovery time objective

D.

Infrastructure discovery

Question 28

Which data deduplication method increases the probability of identifying duplicate data even when there is only a minor difference between two documents?

Options:

A.

Variable-length segment

B.

Single-instance

C.

File-level

D.

Object-level

Question 29

What is a benefit of differential backup over incremental backup?

Options:

A.

Incremental backup can expand to contain more data than differential backup.

B.

Differential backups have longer restore times than incremental backup.

C.

Differential backup can expand to contain more data than an incremental backup

D.

Incremental backups determine the backup copy used to restore the data.

Question 30

What type of backup method allows a client to be installed in a VM that sends the data to the backup device?

Options:

A.

Local replication

B.

Image-based

C.

Agent-based

D.

Synchronous replication

Question 31

What is a function of VM hardening?

Options:

A.

Isolate VM storage media to ensure data validity

B.

Isolate VM storage media to prevent data leaks

C.

Change the default configuration of the VM to enhance security

D.

Implement access control list across the VMs to enhance security

Question 32

What functionality does the control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Forwards data packets based on application layer requirements

B.

Defines network behavior through physical network device policies

C.

Establishes communication between the infrastructure and interface layers

D.

Extracts network information from the data plane and sends it to the application layer

Question 33

Which Connectrix FC switch model supports NVMe in a 32Gb/s SAN fabric exclusively?

Options:

A.

DS-6600B

B.

MDS 9148S

C.

DS-6505B

D.

MDS-9132T

Question 34

Which Dell EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based deduplication?

Options:

A.

Data Domain

B.

SRDF

C.

TimeFinder

D.

Avamar

Question 35

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 6 AM to 6 PM, Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port 4 occurs with the week as follows:

Monday= 11 AM to 1 PM

Wednesday= 5 PM to 10 PM

Thursday= 7 AM to 10 AM

Saturday= 11 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 4 in that week?

Options:

A.

80%

B.

86.7%

C.

90%

D.

81 6%

Question 36

Which type of data protection is used to move primary data to lower cost storage and helps to enforce compliance requirement?

Options:

A.

Archive

B.

Deduplication

C.

Backup

D.

Replication

Question 37

Refer to the Exhibit:

What type of FC port connects each FCIP gateway to each FC SAN?

Options:

A.

VE_Port

B.

TE_Port

C.

E_Port

D.

EX Port

Question 38

An IT organization wants to deploy four FC switches for compute and storage system connectivity. To meet performance requirements, a maximum of one active ISL and redundant ISLs for their compute to storage traffic.

Which FC SAN topology should be recommended?

Options:

A.

Single switch

B.

Partial mesh

C.

Multi-switch

D.

Full mesh

Question 39

A company's assets are continuously under attack.

To deploy a security control mechanism to protect these assets, what should be considered?

Options:

A.

Minimize the work factor

B.

Easy access to assets by authorized users

C.

Limited access to assets by unauthorized users

D.

Maximize the attack surface

Question 40

In an SDS environment, which protocol supports the resource-oriented architecture for the development of scalable and lightweight web applications while adhering to a set of constraints?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

NFS

C.

CIFS

D.

REST

Question 41

Why is it important to automate the operations management process in a data center environment?

Options:

A.

converts CAPEX to OPEX

B.

mitigates operation management risks

C.

eliminates operational cost

D.

ensures operational agility

Question 42

What is true about scale-out NAS storage architecture?

Options:

A.

Grows file system dynamically as nodes are added to the system

B.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers

C.

Provides fixed storage capacity that limits scalability

D.

Scales the capacity within a single NAS storage system

Question 43

Refer to the Exhibit:

What type of data protection is represented?

Options:

A.

Deduplication

B.

Migration

C.

Archiving

D.

Backup

Question 44

What is an accurate statement about scale-out NAS?

Options:

A.

Creates a different file system for each node in the cluster

B.

Stripes data across nodes with mirror or parity protection

C.

Supports only data replication for protecting data

D.

Pools node resources in a cluster to work as multiple NAS devices

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

What type of NAS system(s) processes file write and read operations as described in the example?

Options:

A.

Scale-up and integrated NAS systems

B.

Scale-up NAS system only

C.

Scale -out NAS system

D.

Integrated NAS system only

Question 46

What is determined by the amount of space configured for the journal in continuous data protection (CDP) replication?

Options:

A.

Length of time required to recover the data

B.

Length of time the recovery points can go back

C.

Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point

D.

Amount of space the source and replica volumes require

Question 47

An organization wants to consume compute, network, and storage resources through self-service portal.

Which cloud service model provides this capability?

Options:

A.

Software as a Service

B.

Infrastructure as a Service

C.

Platform as a Service

D.

Data as a Service

Question 48

What is true about a software defined data center?

Options:

A.

IT resource components are virtualized except commodity hardware used to create resource pools

B.

Management operations are dependent of underlying hardware configuration

C.

Services listed in the service portal are updated automatically using orchestration tool

D.

Management functions are moved to an external software controller

Question 49

What is an accurate statement about the Do-It-Yourself approach for building modern Infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Utilizes preconfigured preinstalled and prepackaged vendor ready solutions

B.

Combines the datacenter components into a single standalone computing platform managed by software

C.

Utilizes products and services from the vendors that provide specific functions with more configuration options

D.

Combines datacenter components into a distributed infrastructure platform managed by software

Question 50

What is an advantage of implementing file-level virilization in a data center environment?

Options:

A.

Allows users the ability to only use a physical path to access files

B.

Provides dynamic distribution of files across NAS clients

C.

Provides non-disruptive file mobility across NAS devices

D.

Provides the capability to access files from any device

Question 51

In a data center environment, what is an advantage of using parity-based RAID protection over mirroring?

Options:

A.

Eliminates the write penalty for improving the performance

B.

Improves the efficiency of logical disk drives in the RAID set

C.

Increases the performance of small write I/O operation

D.

Reduces the storage capacity required to protect the data

Question 52

A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 5 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 3000 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 3 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 750 GB. In addition, the maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.

What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?

Options:

A.

7

B.

34

C.

50

D.

40

Question 53

What is a driver for implementing end-to-end NVMe-oF?

Options:

A.

To maximize speed of SSD storage distributed across an FC SAN

B.

To maximize speed of M.2 storage across server-based SAN solutions

C.

To maximize speed of M.2 storage distributed across an FC SAN

D.

To maximize speed of SSD storage distributed across server-based SAN solutions

Question 54

What is the function of a control plane in the SDDC?

Options:

A.

Performs financial operations used to calculate CAPEX

B.

Performs processing and Input output operations

C.

Performs administrative operations and for communicating messages

D.

Performs resource provisioning and provides the programming logic and policies

Question 55

Why is it important for organizations to store protect and manage their data?

Options:

A.

To eliminate complexity in managing the data center environment

B.

To meet the requirements of legal and data governance regulations

C.

To develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement

D.

To reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up

Question 56

Match the functionality of a security goal with its description.

Options:

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Total 189 questions