FINRA SIE Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Exam Practice Test

Under Federal Reserve Regulation T, customers must deposit at least 50% of the purchase price for margin trades. However, theminimum deposit requirement is $2,000, regardless of the 50% rule, if the account is below this threshold.

50% of $3,000 = $1,500.

Since $1,500 is less than the $2,000 minimum, the customer must deposit the full $2,000.

B is correctbecause $2,000 is the required minimum deposit.

Ais incorrect because the $1,500 calculation does not meet the minimum.

CandDare incorrect because they exceed the minimum deposit requirement.

Step by Step Explanation:

Consumer Discretionary Sector: Includes products and services that are not essential, such as luxury items, travel, and entertainment. Revenues increase as disposable income risesduring economic expansion.

Consumer Staples and Utilities: These sectors are defensive and less impacted by economic cycles.

Healthcare: Also less correlated with economic cycles due to its essential nature.

References:

SEC and FINRA Guidance on Sectors: Investopedia Sector Overview.

Regulation S-P mandates that broker-dealers disclose how they collect, protect, and share customers’ nonpublic personal information. The privacy notice must include:

The categories of information collected.

The firm’s policies for safeguarding data.

Opt-out rights for sharing information with unaffiliated third parties.

D is correctbecause privacy notices must describe policies for protecting customer information.

A,B, andCare incorrect because they do not relate to the required elements of Regulation S-P privacy notices.

Step by Step Explanation:

Bullish Position: Buying ABC stock aligns with the expectation that the stock’s price will rise, allowing the investor to profit.

Incorrect Options:

A: Buying puts is a bearish strategy.

C: Selling calls benefits from stable or declining prices.

D: Selling short is a bearish strategy anticipating a price drop.

References:

FINRA Guidance on Market Strategies: FINRA Trading Basics.

Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt securities issued at a discount to par value. The difference between the purchase price and the par value represents the investor’s interest income, which is realized when the T-bill matures.

C is correctbecause T-bills are issued at a discount and mature at par.

Ais incorrect because T-bills are not sold at par value.

BandDare incorrect because T-bills do not pay periodic interest; the return is based on the discount.

A secondary market transaction occurs when securities are bought and sold between investors, typically on an exchange.

C is correctbecause securities purchased on a registered exchange are secondary market transactions.

Ais incorrect as open-end mutual fund shares are purchased directly from the issuer.

Brefers to the primary market.

Dis also incorrect as private placements occur in the primary market.

Step by Step Explanation:

Definition of Accredited Investor: As perSEC Regulation D, Rule 501, an accredited investor includes:

Individuals with a net worth exceeding $1 million (excluding primary residence equity).

Individuals with an annual income exceeding $200,000 (or $300,000 jointly with a spouse) for the past two years.

Elimination of Incorrect Answers:

$500,000 threshold (option B) is too low to qualify under Regulation D.

Option D is incorrect as it requires assets of $5 million, not $2.5 million.

References:

SEC Regulation D, Rule 501 (Accredited Investor Definition): SEC Regulation D.

Step by Step Explanation:

Hypothecation Agreement: Required for margin accounts, it authorizes the broker-dealer to use the customer's margin securities as collateral to secure loans for funding customer transactions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Sharing customer information is regulated under privacy rules (Regulation S-P).

B: Unauthorized trading violates securities laws.

C: Selling unpaid securities in cash accounts pertains to Regulation T, not hypothecation agreements.

References:

FINRA Margin Account Rules: FINRA Rule 4210.

Step by Step Explanation:

Form U4 Reporting Requirements: Registered persons must disclose criminal charges (excluding minor traffic violations) and material changes such as residential address changes. Gambling-related misdemeanors are considered reportable.

Incorrect Options:

Speeding Ticket: Typically not reportable unless it involves a felony.

Business Telephone Number: Not material for Form U4.

References:

FINRA Form U4 Instructions: FINRA Form U4.

The beta coefficient measures the sensitivity of a stock's returns relative to the overall market (usually the S&P 500). A beta of:

1.0indicates the stock moves in line with the market.

Greater than 1.0suggests the stock is more volatile than the market.

Less than 1.0suggests the stock is less volatile.

D is correctbecause beta specifically compares the volatility of a stock to the market.

Ais incorrect as beta does not measure the market’s volatility.

Bis incorrect as beta considers both upside and downside movements.

Cis incorrect as beta does not measure liquidity.

Step by Step Explanation:

Federal Funds Rate: The rate at which depository institutions lend reserves to each other overnight. It is set by the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).

Other Rates:

Prime Rate: Rate banks charge their most creditworthy customers.

Discount Rate: Rate the Federal Reserve charges banks for borrowing directly from it.

LIBOR: Interbank lending rate used internationally, now being phased out.

References:

Federal Reserve Explanation of Rates: Federal Funds Rate.

Purchasing a put option allows the customer to sell the stock at a predetermined price (the strike price) if the share price declines. This strategy protects against downside risk while maintaining upside potential.

C is correctbecause a put acts as insurance, locking in a minimum sale price.

Ais incorrect because selling a put exposes the investor to additional risk if the stock declines.

Bis incorrect because selling a call generates income but does not protect against downside risk.

Dis incorrect because purchasing a call is a bullish strategy unrelated to protecting existing positions.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 2210: Firms are prohibited from suggesting or implying FINRA's endorsement or approval in any advertising materials.

Approvals: Even if a principal or FINRA approves the content, such a statement remains impermissible.

Key Point: FINRA's role is to regulate, not to endorse firms or their marketing.

References:

FINRA Rule 2210 (Communications with the Public): FINRA Rule 2210.

Step by Step Explanation:

DVP Process: Ensures that payment occurs simultaneously with the delivery of securities, mitigating counterparty risk. Cash payment is made before or at the time of delivery.

Incorrect Options:

A: The T+5 timeline is not standard for DVP.

C: Payment must occur at delivery, not after.

D: Settlement date agreements with the issuer are irrelevant for DVP.

References:

FINRA Guidelines on DVP/RVP Transactions: FINRA DVP Info.

SEC Regulation A provides a registration exemption for smaller public offerings but includes a "bad actor" disqualification. If certain key parties, such as the issuer, underwriter, or affiliates, have been involved in securities violations, the exemption is forfeited.

B is correctbecause underwriters are considered essential participants, and their status as bad actors disqualifies the offering.

A,C, andDare incorrect because custodians, transfer agents, and clearing corporations are not included in the "bad actor" provisions of Regulation A.

Step by Step Explanation:

Short Sale Definition: Involves selling borrowed securities with the expectation of repurchasing them at a lower price.

Investor Ownership: Short sales do not involve securities already owned by the seller.

Other Options: None of the other choices accurately define a short sale.

References:

SEC Regulation SHO (Short Selling): SEC Short Sales.

Step by Step Explanation:

Balance Sheet Definition: Shows a company’s financial position at a specific point in time, listing assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity (net worth).

Other Financial Statements:

Profit and Loss Statement: Summarizes revenues and expenses over a period.

Cash Flow Statement: Tracks cash inflows and outflows.

References:

SEC Guide to Financial Statements: SEC Financials.

Accounts held individually are subject to probate, which is the legal process of administering the decedent’s estate. Probate determines the distribution of assets according to the deceased’s will or state intestacy laws.

A is correctbecause individual accounts require probate to transfer assets.

Bis incorrect because irrevocable trusts bypass probate.

Cis incorrect because TOD accounts allow direct transfer of assets to named beneficiarieswithout probate.

Dis incorrect because JTWROS accounts transfer ownership to the surviving account holder automatically.

Step by Step Explanation:

MSRB Rule G-10: Requires municipal securities dealers to notify customers annually about the availability of the MSRB investor brochure, which explains investor protections and complaint filing procedures.

Incorrect Options:

A and B: Address and financial standing are not specifically required disclosures.

C: FINRA violations are not a required disclosure under MSRB rules.

References:

MSRB Rule G-10 (Investor Brochure Requirement): MSRB Rule G-10.

Step by Step Explanation:

Low Liquidity: Hedge funds often impose lock-up periods and restrict redemptions, leading to low liquidity for investors.

Incorrect Options:

B: Hedge funds typically have high minimum investment requirements, often $1 million or more.

C: Hedge funds employ diverse strategies, not just fixed income.

D: Hedge funds are generally opaque about their strategies and holdings to protect their competitive advantage.

References:

SEC Investor Bulletin on Hedge Funds: SEC Hedge Funds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Publicly Traded Limited Partnerships (PTPs): Represent ownership stakes, which categorize them as equity securities. PTPs often involve sectors like real estate or energy.

Incorrect Options:

A: Mutual funds are pooled investment vehicles, not partnerships.

C: Fixed-income securities are debt instruments like bonds.

D: Derivatives include options or futures, not ownership stakes.

References:

SEC Guidance on Publicly Traded Partnerships: SEC PTPs.

Purchasing power risk, also known as inflation risk, occurs when inflation reduces the real value of a fixed-income stream. Fixed payments (e.g., bond interest or annuity payments) lose buying power as inflation rises.

D is correctbecause inflation directly affects fixed income by eroding purchasing power.

Ais incorrect because market risk relates to fluctuations in market prices, not inflation.

Bis incorrect because economic risk generally refers to broader economic downturns.

Cis incorrect because interest rate risk involves changes in bond prices due to interest rate movements, not inflation.

529 savings plans are state-sponsored education savings accounts that offer tax-advantaged growth. Key features include:

Contributions are not federally tax deductible (some states offer state-level deductions).

No income limitations for contributions.

The account owner, not the beneficiary, controls the plan.

Assets can be transferred tax-free to another family member’s 529 plan.

D is correctbecause tax-free rollovers are allowed for family members of the current beneficiary.

Ais incorrect as contributions are not universally tax deductible.

Bis incorrect as there are no income limitations for contributing.

Cis incorrect because the account owner, not the beneficiary, controls the assets.

Step by Step Explanation:

Tenants in Common: In this arrangement, each tenant owns a fractional interest in the account's assets, which can be unequal depending on the agreement.

Income Distribution: Income is distributed based on ownership percentage, not necessarily equally.

Redemption Requests: Only the owner of the fractional interest has authority to request redemption for their portion.

Estate Taxation: Upon the death of a tenant, only their fractional interest is taxable in their estate.

References:

FINRA Guidelines on Joint Accounts: FINRA Joint Accounts.

Step by Step Explanation:

Expense Ratio: Class A shares typically have lower ongoing expense ratios but higher front-end sales charges. Class C shares often have higher ongoing expense ratios but no front-end charges.

Incorrect Options:

B: NAV is determined daily and does not vary by share class.

C: All share classes invest in the same underlying portfolio.

D: Purchase timing is the same for all share classes.

References:

SEC Guidance on Mutual Fund Share Classes:SEC Fund Classes.

FINRA Rule 4511 requires member firms to retain records, including electronic communications, in anon-rewriteable, non-erasable format(often referred to as WORM: Write Once, Read Many). This ensures that records cannot be altered or deleted once stored.

D is correctbecause firms must store records in a tamper-proof format.

A,B, andCare incorrect because these formats do not guarantee compliance with the tamper-proof requirements set forth by FINRA and the SEC.

High-income bond mutual funds typically invest in lower-rated (junk) bonds that offer higher yields. These bonds are exposed to significant credit risk, as issuers may default on their payments.

A is correctbecause credit risk is the primary concern with high-yield bonds.

Bis incorrect as political risk is more relevant for international investments.

Cis incorrect because taxability risk is not specific to bond mutual funds.

Dis incorrect because purchasing power risk is more relevant for fixed-income investments during inflationary periods but is not the primary risk here.

Step by Step Explanation:

SEC Rule 10b-10: Requires trade confirmations to disclose the capacity in which the firm acted (e.g., as agent or principal) and details like trade price, quantity, and commissions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Cost basis is not disclosed on trade confirmations.

B: Inventory levels are not part of the required disclosures.

C: Market maker status is not explicitly required in the confirmation.

References:

SEC Rule 10b-10 (Confirmation Requirements): SEC Rule 10b-10.

Step by Step Explanation:

Warrants: These are long-term options issued by a company that give the holder the right to buy shares at a specific price before expiration. They are typically attached to bond or stock offerings to make them more attractive.

Incorrect Options:

A: Warrants do not pay interest.

B: Refers to callable bonds, not warrants.

D: Describes municipal bonds, not warrants.

References:

SEC Guide to Warrants and Options: SEC Warrants Information.

Equity securities represent ownership in a company, and preferred stock is a type of equity security that pays dividends and has priority over common stock in liquidation.

A is correctbecause preferred stock is an equity security.

Bis incorrect because commercial paper is a short-term debt security.

Cis incorrect because certificates of deposit (CDs) are fixed-income banking products.

Dis incorrect because exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are unsecured debt securities.

CMOs are divided into tranches, which are portions of the pool of mortgage-backed securities. Each tranche has its own characteristics, including coupon rate, maturity date, and credit rating, tailored to meet the needs of different investors.

C is correctbecause tranches represent slices of the investment with specific terms.

Ais incorrect because the yield depends on prepayment rates and interest rate changes.

Bis incorrect as average life is an estimate, not a defining characteristic of a tranche.

Dis incorrect because underwriting is unrelated to the definition of a tranche.

Step by Step Explanation:

Debentures: Corporate bonds not backed by physical assets or collateral. They rely on the issuer’s creditworthiness.

Incorrect Options:

B: Trust certificates are a legacy term for bonds backed by a trust.

C: Collateral trust bonds are secured by financial assets.

D: GO bonds are issued by municipalities, not corporations.

References:

SEC Guide on Corporate Bonds:SEC Corporate Bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Tender Offer Definition: A tender offer is an offer to purchase a certain number of shares from shareholders, typically at a price above the current market value. This is often part of mergers, acquisitions, or corporate takeovers.

Stock Split: A stock split increases the number of shares but decreases the price per share without affecting the total value of an investor's holdings.

Redemption: Redemption refers to the repayment of a bond or preferred stock at maturity or at a predetermined date.

Class Action: A class action is a lawsuit filed by a group of people with similar grievances.

References:

SEC Rule 14e on tender offers: SEC Tender Offers.

When interest rates rise, the price of fixed-rate corporate bonds falls because the bond's coupon payments become less attractive compared to new bonds issued at higher rates.

D is correctas bond prices move inversely to interest rates.

Ais incorrect because bond prices fluctuate with interest rate changes.

Bis incorrect because bond prices revert to par only at maturity.

Cis incorrect because prices do not appreciate when rates rise.

FINRA Rule 5130 restricts participation in IPOs for certain individuals (e.g., restricted persons) to prevent potential conflicts of interest. Restricted persons include employees of broker-dealers and their immediate family members.

C is correctbecause the president of a local bank is not considered a restricted person under FINRA Rule 5130.

Ais incorrect because employees (registered or not) of broker-dealers are restricted.

Bis incorrect because immediate family members of broker-dealer employees are restricted,even if unemployed.

Dis incorrect because the immediate family of a registered representative is restricted.

When a firm acts in a principal capacity, it trades securities for its own account, buying or selling directly to or from its inventory. The firm’s role differs from an agency capacity, where it acts as an intermediary.

A is correctbecause principal capacity involves selling directly from the firm's inventory.

B,C, andDare incorrect because these scenarios describe agency transactions, where the firm facilitates trades between two parties.

Step by Step Explanation:

SEC Registration Statements: The SEC reviews registration statements for completeness and compliance but does not judge the merits, approve, or endorse the securities being offered.

Other Options:

A, B, and C: Misrepresent the SEC’s role in the registration process.

References:

SEC Bulletin on Registration Statements: SEC Registration Process.

Step by Step Explanation:

Warrants: Are often issued alongside fixed-income securities, such as bonds, to enhance their appeal to investors. Warrants give the holder the right to purchase company stock at a specific price in the future.

Incorrect Options:

Options: Not typically bundled with fixed-income securities.

Common and Preferred Stock: Usually issued separately, not as part of a package with bonds.

References:

SEC Guide on Warrants: SEC Warrants Information.

The annual interest on a bond is calculated based on thecoupon rateand the bond’s par value.

Coupon rate = 4.0%.

Annual interest = $10,000 (par value) × 4.0% =$400.

A is correctbecause the coupon rate determines the annual interest.

B,C, andDare incorrect because they reflect incorrect calculations. The current yield, YTM, and tax-equivalent yield do not affect the bond’s fixed coupon payments.

Step by Step Explanation:

Discount Bonds: These are issued or traded below par value. Over time, their price moves closer to par as they approach maturity, assuming yields remain constant.

Other Options:

Par Value Changes: The par value of a bond does not change over time; only its price fluctuates.

References:

SEC and FINRA Bond Basics: SEC Discount Bonds.

When an economy operates near full capacity, additional money in circulation leads to inflation, as demand exceeds the economy’s ability to increase supply.

B is correctbecause inflation is the primary impact when supply cannot keep up with excess demand.

Ais incorrect because output does not significantly increase when capacity is already maximized.

Cis incorrect because velocity measures the rate at which money circulates, not the impact of oversupply.

Dis incorrect as unemployment is already low when the economy is at full capacity.

Treasury stock refers to shares that were issued by a company and subsequently repurchased by the company. These shares are held in the company’s treasury and are not considered outstanding.

C is correctbecause treasury stock is stock reacquired by the issuer.

Ais incorrect because authorized but unissued stock has never been issued.

Bis incorrect because restricted stock refers to shares issued with restrictions on transferability, not reacquired stock.

Dis incorrect because it incorrectly refers to government securities, not corporate stock.

Step by Step Explanation:

Inverse Relationship: Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship. When interest rates fall, existing bonds with higher coupon rates become more valuable, leading to an increase in market value.

Incorrect Options:

A: Market value decreases as interest rates increase.

C: Interest rates and bond values move inversely, not in the same direction.

D: Interest rates are not constant; they fluctuate over time.

References:

SEC Municipal Bonds Overview: SEC Municipal Bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 3150: Permits firms to hold customer mail only with written instructions specifying the duration, which cannot exceed three months unless there are exceptionalcircumstances.

Incorrect Options:

A: Holding mail is not prohibited if done in compliance with FINRA rules.

C & D: Oral instructions or RR discretion are not sufficient; written authorization is mandatory.

References:

FINRA Rule 3150 (Holding of Customer Mail): FINRA Rule 3150.

Step by Step Explanation:

Regular-Way Settlement: For equity securities, settlement occurs on a T+2 basis, meaning two business days after the trade date.

Calculation:

Trade Date (T): Thursday, August 2.

T+2 Settlement: Excludes weekends, so settlement falls on Monday, August 6.

Incorrect Options:

A: Reflects T+1, not the correct settlement cycle.

C & D: Extend beyond the standard T+2 cycle.

References:

FINRA and SEC Settlement Rules: SEC Settlement Rules.

Step by Step Explanation:

SIPC Coverage: Protects customers of brokerage firms against the loss of securities and cash due to broker-dealer insolvency, but it does not protect against market losses.

FDIC Coverage: Protects bank deposits (checking, savings, CDs) up to $250,000 per depositor, per institution.

Incorrect Options:

A: SIPC covers both securities and cash held at brokerage firms (within limits).

C & D: Money market mutual funds are not FDIC insured, and securities are not covered by the FDIC.

References:

SIPC Overview:SIPC Coverage.

FDIC Insurance:FDIC Coverage.

Step by Step Explanation:

SIPC Coverage Limits: Protects up to $500,000 per customer, including a maximum of $250,000 for cash.

In this case, $300,000 in cash exceeds the SIPC limit, so only $250,000 is protected.

Incorrect Options:

A: $150,000 understates the SIPC limit for cash.

C: The full $300,000 in cash is not protected.

D: Total coverage exceeds SIPC limits.

References:

SIPC Coverage Details:SIPC Protection.

An option is considered "at the money" when the current price of the underlying asset (or index level) equals the option’s strike price.

B is correctbecause the index level equals the strike price.

Ais incorrect because "in the money" requires the option to have intrinsic value (e.g., for a call, the index level must be above the strike price).

Cis incorrect because "out of the money" applies when the index level is below the strike price (for calls) or above it (for puts).

Dis incorrect because "at the money" options have no intrinsic value.

Mutual funds are traded based on forward pricing. Orders received after the market closes are executed at the NAV calculated at the next market close.

A is correctbecause it aligns with forward pricing rules.

B,C, andDare incorrect as they do not follow mutual fund trade practices.