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Huawei H12-811_V1.0 HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Exam Exam Practice Test

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Total 325 questions

HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Exam Questions and Answers

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Question 1

When the host accesses the web service of the server, the value of the "Protocol" field at the network layer is 6.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 2

(Which of the following statements is true about active interface election for an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode?)

Options:

A.

Only interface priorities are compared.

B.

Device priorities are compared.

C.

Interface priorities are compared first. If priorities of interfaces on the Actor are the same, interfaces with smaller interface numbers are elected as active interfaces.

D.

Only interface numbers are compared.

Question 3

Which of the following packets is used by OSPF to describe its link state database (LSDB)?

Options:

A.

LSR

B.

DD

C.

LSU

D.

HELLO

Question 4

As shown in the figure, router A has successfully telneted to router B using 10.0.12.2. Which of the following operations will interrupt the Telnet session between router A and router B?

Options:

A.

Enable OSPF on G0/0/1

B.

Change the IP address of G0/0/1

C.

Disable G0/0/1

D.

Configure a static route

Question 5

As shown in the figure, RTA uses NAT and has an address pool configured to implement many-to-many non-NAPT address translation, so that hosts on the private network can access the public network. Assume that the address pool has only two public IP addresses, which are translated for Host A and Host B. If Host C wants to access the public network, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

All hosts use public IP addresses in turn and can access the public network.

B.

No public IP address is assigned to Host C, and Host C cannot access the public network.

C.

RTA performs NAT based on the source port number of Host C, and Host C can access the public network.

D.

RTA assigns an interface address (200.10.10.3) to Host C, and Host C can access the public network.

Question 6

In RSTP, a backup port can replace a faulty root port.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 7

Which of the following statements is true about the edge port in RSTP?

Options:

A.

Interconnected ports between switches must be configured as edge ports.

B.

Edge ports participate in RSTP calculation.

C.

The edge port can directly transition from the Disabled state to the Forwarding state.

D.

The edge port discards the received configuration BPDUs.

Question 8

The data link layer uses PPP encapsulation. The IP addresses of the two ends of the link can be in different network segments.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 9

When a host uses the IP address 192.168.1.2 to access the Internet, NAT must be performed.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 10

The following figure shows the display interface Eth-Trunk 1 command output on SWA. In the MAC address table of SWA, which of the following interfaces maps the MAC address of SWB?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0/1

B.

Eth-Trunk 1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/0/3

D.

GigabitEthernet0/0/2

Question 11

In the following figure, all links are Ethernet links, and all interfaces on the routers are running OSPF. Given this, how many DRs will be elected on this network?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

4

D.

2

Question 12

If the transport-layer protocol is UDP, the value of the "Protocol" field at the network layer is 6.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 13

SDN requires the control and forwarding planes to be separated.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 14

Which of the following are types of network communication?

Options:

A.

Downloading emails from a mailbox to your computer.

B.

Accessing the official website of a company on your computer.

C.

Chatting with friends through instant messaging software (Facebook Messenger, WhatsApp, etc.).

D.

Watching an online video on your computer.

Question 15

(The IPv6 address architecture does not include which of the following address types?)

Options:

A.

Unicast.

B.

Anycast.

C.

Multicast.

D.

Broadcast.

Question 16

Which of the following network types does OSPF support?

Options:

A.

Broadcast.

B.

Point-to-Point.

C.

Non-Broadcast Multi-Access (NBMA).

D.

Point-to-Multipoint.

Question 17

What packet types are included in DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP Discover packet

B.

DHCP Request packet

C.

DHCP Rollover packet

D.

DHCP Offer packet

Question 18

According to the one-armed routing configurations shown in the figure, even if ARP proxy is disabled on the sub-interface of R1, the Administration Dept and Finance Dept can still communicate with each other.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 19

To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along the path to the destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired ICMP TTL packet?

Options:

A.

Source port.

B.

Destination IP address.

C.

Source IP address.

D.

Destination port.

Question 20

Which SNMP version focuses on two main aspects, namely security and administration? The security aspect is addressed by offering both strong authentication and data encryption for privacy. The administration aspect is focused on two parts, namely notification originators and proxy forwarders.

Options:

A.

SNMPv2

B.

SNMPv2c

C.

SNMPv3

D.

SNMPv1

Question 21

According to OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for end-to-end error checking and flow control?

Options:

A.

Network layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Data link layer

D.

Transport layer

Question 22

Which of the following statements about the routing table shown in the figure are true?

Options:

A.

The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.2.2 from Ethernet0/0/0.

B.

The next hop in the route to the destination network 10.0.3.3/32 is not directly connected. Therefore, the local router does not forward data packets destined for 10.0.3.3.

C.

The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.12.1 from Ethernet0/0/0.

D.

The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.3.3 from Ethernet0/0/0.

Question 23

Which of the following is a link-state routing protocol?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

OSPF

C.

Direct

D.

Static

Question 24

Which of the following statements about hybrid interfaces is true?

Options:

A.

Hybrid interfaces can remove VLAN tags from some outgoing VLAN frames.

B.

Hybrid interfaces do not require PVIDs.

C.

Hybrid interfaces must carry VLAN tags when sending data frames.

D.

Hybrid interfaces receive only data frames with VLAN tags.

Question 25

On the command line interface of Huawei AR routers, the role of the Save command is to save the current system time.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 26

Only the WPA2-PSK security policy supports TKIP data encryption.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 27

Assuming that OSPF has been enabled on all routers in the following figure, which router is the BDR on this network?

Options:

A.

Router B

B.

Router A

C.

Router D

D.

Router C

Question 28

After an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode is created, devices on both ends send LACPDUs to elect the Actor. Which of the following parameters in LACPDUs determine the Actor election?

Options:

A.

Device priority

B.

Interface number

C.

MAC address

D.

Interface priority

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true about link aggregation in manual load balancing mode?

Options:

A.

A maximum of four active interfaces can be configured in manual load balancing mode.

B.

In manual load balancing mode, devices at both ends of a link send LACPDUs to each other.

C.

In manual load balancing mode, all active interfaces forward data and load balance traffic.

D.

The number of active interfaces can be set in manual load balancing mode.

Question 30

Which of the following descriptions regarding the TTL field of the IP packet is correct?

Options:

A.

The TTL value will decrement by 1 each time the packet is routed.

B.

The TTL defines the duration during which the source can send packets.

C.

The TTL defines how many packets the source can send.

D.

The TTL value will increment by 1 each time the packet is routed.

Question 31

What is the TPID value defined by IEEE 802.1Q?

Options:

A.

0x9100

B.

0x8100

C.

0x8200

D.

0x7200

Question 32

(You can run the "pwd" and "dir" commands on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to view file information in the current directory.)

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 33

The country code configuration affects the actual transmission frequency and maximum transmission power.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 34

How many port states are involved in RSTP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

3

Question 35

Which of the following mask lengths is recommended for device interconnection IP addresses during campus network planning?

Options:

A.

30

B.

32

C.

24

D.

16

Question 36

(Which of the following are not main functions of routers?)

Options:

A.

Routers forward data packets based on source IP addresses.

B.

Routers enable devices on the same network segment to communicate with each other.

C.

Routers forward data packets according to routing tables.

D.

Routers learn routes through multiple routing protocols and add them to the routing table.

Question 37

Only one SSID can be bound to each radio of an AP.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 38

In a broadcast address, all host bits are set to 1, and a broadcast address can be used as a host address.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 39

(An administrator cannot log in to a Huawei router through Telnet, but other administrators can log in to the router. Which of the following are possible causes?)

Options:

A.

The administrator account has been disabled.

B.

The Telnet service has been disabled on the AR2200 router.

C.

The administrator account has been deleted.

D.

The user level of the administrator account has been changed to 0.

Question 40

Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards supports the 2.4 GHz frequency band only?

Options:

A.

802.11a

B.

802.11g

C.

802.11n

D.

802.11ax

Question 41

What are the advantages of using DHCP to allocate IP addresses?

Options:

A.

DHCP can prevent IP address conflicts.

B.

DHCP provides heavy workload and is difficult to manage.

C.

IP addresses can be reused.

D.

If the configuration information changes, for example, the DNS server address changes, the administrator only needs to modify the configuration information on the DHCP server, facilitating unified management.

Question 42

To enable Router A to communicate with Loopback 0 on Router B on the network shown in the figure, which of the following commands needs to be run on Router A?

Options:

A.

ip route-static 10.0.2.2 32 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

B.

ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.1

C.

ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2

D.

ip route-static 10.0.2.2 0 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

Question 43

(Which layer of the OSI model does a router work at?)

Options:

A.

Network layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Data link layer

D.

Application layer

Question 44

Which of the following statements about encapsulation and decapsulation are true?

Options:

A.

Encapsulation and decapsulation can locate network faults.

B.

Encapsulation and decapsulation shorten the packet length.

C.

Encapsulation and decapsulation participate in achieving different network protocol functions.

D.

Encapsulation and decapsulation can implement network communication.

Question 45

If the value of the "Type/Length" field of an Ethernet data frame is 0x0800, the length range of the upper-layer packet header carried by the data frame is from 20B to 60B.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 46

If a device running STP receives an RSTP configuration BPDU, it discards the BPDU.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 47

Refer to the following configuration of a switch interface. Which of the following statements is false?

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

port link-type trunk

port trunk pvid vlan 200

port trunk allow-pass vlan 100

Options:

A.

If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag before sending the data frame.

B.

If the interface receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to tag the data frames with VLAN 200.

C.

The interface cannot send data frames tagged with VLAN 200.

D.

The link type of the interface is trunk.

Question 48

By referring to the network structure and OSPF areas shown in the figure, it can be determined that all routers on the network except RTA are ABRs.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 49

As shown in the figure, if host A has the ARP cache of host B, host A can ping host B.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 50

The load balancing modes at both ends of an Eth-Trunk can be different.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 51

With SNMP, an NMS can only display the device running status but cannot deliver configurations.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 52

(Refer to the display startup command output shown in the figure on an AR2200 router. Which of the following statements about the command output is false?)

display startup

MainBoard:

Startup system software: sdl:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc

Next startup system software: sdl:/ar222b-v200r003c00spc200.cc

Backup system software for next startup: null

Startup saved-configuration file: null

Next startup saved-configuration file: null

Startup license file: null

Next startup license file: null

Startup patch package: null

Next startup patch package: null

Startup voice-files: null

Next startup voice-files: null

Options:

A.

The system file for next startup cannot be modified.

B.

The startup system software command can be used to modify the system software for next startup.

C.

The running configuration file is not saved.

D.

The system file used for the current startup is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc.

Question 53

Which of the following commands sets the data forwarding mode on an AC to direct forwarding?

Options:

A.

forward mode tunnel

B.

forward-mode direct-forward

C.

forward-mode capwap-forward

D.

forward-mode direct

Question 54

What is used as the data link-layer MAC address that identifies each VAP on an AP?

Options:

A.

BSS

B.

SSID

C.

BSSID

D.

ESS

Question 55

Network devices running SNMP can proactively report traps to help network administrators detect faults in a timely manner.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 56

Assume that an OSPF-enabled router has no loopback interface configured. What would be used as the router ID?

Options:

A.

The preference of the router

B.

The smallest IP address of a physical interface on the router (if configured)

C.

The IP address of the router's management interface (if configured)

D.

The biggest IP address of a physical interface on the router (if configured)

Question 57

Network Address and Port Translation (NAPT) allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to the same public IP address through different port numbers. Which of the following statements about port numbers in NAPT is true?

Options:

A.

Only the port number range needs to be configured.

B.

The mappings between port numbers and private IP addresses must be manually configured.

C.

An ACL is required to allocate port numbers.

D.

No port number needs to be configured.

Question 58

Which of the following parameters is used to elect the root bridge in STP?

Options:

A.

Bridge ID

B.

Port ID

C.

Root path cost

D.

System name of the switch

Question 59

After the administrator performs the configuration shown in the figure on a router, which of the following commands can be used to specify a short lease for addresses assigned using DHCP?

Options:

A.

dhcp select relay

B.

lease 0

C.

lease day 0 hour 10

D.

lease 24

Question 60

Which of the following are true about the Ethernet data frame with the "Length/Type" field being 0x0806?

Options:

A.

The source MAC address of the data frame is definitely not FFFF-FFFF-FFFF.

B.

The data frame is an Ethernet II frame.

C.

The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame.

D.

The destination MAC address of the data frame must be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF.

Question 61

On the VRP, when the mkdir test command is run, the system creates a directory named test.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 62

If the broadcast address of a network is 172.16.1.255, which of the following addresses is the network address?

Options:

A.

172.16.1.128

B.

172.16.1.1

C.

172.16.2.0

D.

172.16.1.253

Question 63

The authentication, authorization, and accounting schemes and HWTACACS or RADIUS server templates created on AR routers take effect only after being applied to a domain.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 64

(The administrator performs the configuration shown in the figure on a router, and a host is connected to Gi/0/0 of the router. Which of the following statements is true about the IP address obtained by the host through DHCP?)

Options:

A.

The host cannot obtain an IP address.

B.

The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.10.10.0/24 network segment.

C.

The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.20.20.0/24 network segment.

D.

The IP address obtained by the host may belong to the 10.10.10.0/24 or 10.20.20.0/24 network segment.

Question 65

According to the VTY user interface configuration shown in the following figure, the user level is set to 3.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 66

On VRP, the command lines are classified into four levels in increasing priority: Visit level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level. At which level, the operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate the file system?

Options:

A.

Visit level

B.

Configuration level

C.

Monitoring level

D.

Management level

Question 67

Which of the following port states are included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?

Options:

A.

Discarding

B.

Forwarding

C.

Learning

D.

Listening

Question 68

After a switch restarts, static MAC address entries saved on the switch remain in the MAC address table.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 69

Which of the following planes does a network device have?

Options:

A.

Control plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Service plane

Question 70

Which of the following is not a type of OSPF LSA?

Options:

A.

LSA

B.

LSU

C.

LSR

D.

LSACK

Question 71

Which of the following methods is not supported by the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to configure a router?

Options:

A.

Configure the router through FTP.

B.

Configure the router through the mini USB port.

C.

Configure the router through Telnet.

D.

Configure the router through the console port.

Question 72

On Huawei routers, which of the following is the default preference of static routing?

Options:

A.

0

B.

100

C.

60

D.

120

Question 73

Which of the following operations are mandatory to restore the factory default settings of an AR2200 router?

Options:

A.

Restarting the AR2200 router

B.

Resetting saved configurations

C.

Clearing the current configuration

D.

Specifying the configuration file for the next startup

Question 74

Assuming all STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address of switch A is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the MAC address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which switch will be elected as the root switch?

Options:

A.

Switch B

B.

Switch A

C.

Switch D

D.

Switch C

Question 75

What is the number range of an advanced ACL?

Options:

A.

2000-2999

B.

3000-3999

C.

6000-6031

D.

4000-4999

Question 76

The TCP protocol uses the three-way handshake mechanism to establish and disable connections. Therefore, TCP supports reliable data transmission.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 77

Refer to the following configuration of an interface on a switch. For which VLAN does the interface remove VLAN tags before forwarding data frames?

go

CopyEdit

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

port link-type trunk

port trunk pvid vlan 10

port trunk allow-pass vlan 10 20 30 40

Options:

A.

10

B.

30

C.

20

D.

40

Question 78

Which of the following IP addresses can be used by another host to communicate with the host whose IP address is 200.200.200.201/30 without the need to forward traffic through a router?

Options:

A.

200.200.200.1

B.

200.200.200.203

C.

200.200.200.202

D.

200.200.200.200

Question 79

Refer to the graphic, which of the following statements is true about OSPF topology and configuration?

Options:

A.

Compared with R1, R2 is more likely to become the DR because the DR priority of the interface on R2 is lower than that of R1.

B.

After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast, a stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

C.

After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast and the hello packet sending interval is changed to 10s, a stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

D.

A stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

Question 80

What is the protocol number of OSPF at the network layer?

Options:

A.

0

B.

89

C.

6

D.

1

Question 81

The router ID of the OSPF-enabled router must be the same as the IP address of an interface on the router.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 82

If the MAC address of an interface is 00E0-FCEF-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ( ).

Options:

A.

02E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC

B.

02E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC

C.

00E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC

D.

00E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC

Question 83

Which of the following statements is true about root bridge election in STP?

Options:

A.

The device with the largest bridge priority becomes the root bridge.

B.

If the bridge priorities of devices are the same, the device with the largest MAC address becomes the root bridge.

C.

The device with the smallest bridge priority becomes the root bridge.

D.

If the bridge priorities are the same, the device with the largest number of ports becomes the root bridge.

Question 84

The rules in an ACL may overlap. If packets match the rules with loose conditions, the later ACL rules are not processed. In this case, packets cannot match the rules with strict conditions. Therefore, the rules with strict conditions must be arranged in front lines and those with loose conditions must be arranged towards the end.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Total 325 questions