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IIA IIA-CCSA Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Exam Practice Test

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Total 270 questions

Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and limits internal controls to external controls over financial reporting.

B.

Integrated framework defines external control broadly and does not limit external controls to external controls over financial reporting.

C.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and limits internal controls to accounting controls over financial reporting.

D.

Integrated framework defines internal control broadly and does not limit internal controls to accounting controls over financial reporting.

Question 2

The possibility of an event occurring that will have an impact on the achievement of objectives refers to:

Options:

A.

Performance

B.

Progress

C.

Measurement

D.

Risk

Question 3

A successful Project has following phases:

Options:

A.

Planning, Execution, Controlling

B.

Initiation, Planning, Execution, Controlling

C.

Initiation, Planning, Execution, Testing

D.

Planning, Execution, Controlling, Testing

Question 4

Compliance tests are procedures designed to verify whether controls are being applied in the manner described in the flowcharts, questionnaires etc.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 5

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

External control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more dispersed categories.

B.

Internal control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more separate but overlapping categories.

C.

External control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more separate but overlapping categories.

D.

Internal control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more dispersed categories.

Question 6

Non-discretionary controls are:

Options:

A.

subject to human choice or judgment

B.

customary controls with which all auditors are familiar.

C.

automatically provided by the system and cannot be bypassed, ignored or overridden based on human judgment.

D.

addresses intangibles such as competence, values, openness and leadership and more difficult to grasp.

Question 7

To ensure that data is being used as performance indicators accurately and objectively measure desired outputs and outcomes is called:

Options:

A.

data validation

B.

data verification

C.

data justification

D.

data measure

Question 8

Control self-assessment questions have which following categories?

Options:

A.

General or Core questions

B.

Questions relating to particular business function

C.

Questions relating to specific business unit involves in workshop

D.

All of the above

Question 9

New employees, consultants and contractors must receive security awareness training and supporting documentation at the time of employment refers to:

Options:

A.

Employee orientation

B.

Confidentiality agreement

C.

Both A & B

D.

Neither A nor B

Question 10

Accounting controls are:

Options:

A.

Procedures and information related to the activity-level achievements of processes and reliability of financial records.

B.

Information related to the controlling of assets and reliability of financial records.

C.

Procedures related to the management of expenses and reliability of financial records.

D.

Procedures and information related to the safeguarding of assets and reliability of financial records.

Question 11

Which following is a classification of Control self-assessment workshop?

Options:

A.

Presentation software

B.

Electronic mailing

C.

Project management software

D.

None of the above

Question 12

Votes are cast anonymously and all responses are confidential is one of the advantages of:

Options:

A.

Classified voting

B.

Electronic mailing

C.

Electronic voting

D.

None of the above

Question 13

The combination of processes and structures implemented by the board in order to inform, direct, manage and monitor the activities of the organization toward its achievements is called:

Options:

A.

Supervision

B.

Overseeing

C.

Monitoring capitals

D.

Governance

Question 14

Description, action steps, time frames, delineated responsibilities are all factors of Objective statements.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?

Options:

A.

Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.

B.

Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.

C.

Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.

D.

Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.

Question 16

Alleged perpetrators have the right to expect an objective investigation and that allegations against them will be kept as confidential as possible until they are substantiated, this refers to;

Options:

A.

Standardized enforcement

B.

Professionalism maintenance

C.

Classified investigation

D.

Chronological acts

Question 17

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations.

B.

Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.

C.

Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.

D.

Assets are safeguards for internal audits.

Question 18

The technique that involves developing a sequence of possible events and projecting potential results refers to:

Options:

A.

scenario

B.

Action plan

C.

synthetic act

D.

none of the above

Question 19

What aims to allow individuals involved in the process to assist the CSA team in identifying the risks and control weaknesses in the processes being reviewed?

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Survey

C.

Voting

D.

Auditing

Question 20

To relate high-level goals, aligned with and supporting the entity’s mission/vision is called:

Options:

A.

Strategic act

B.

Operational law

C.

Objective setting

D.

Event identification

Question 21

The internal auditor for standard 1220 should exercise due professional care by considering which following aspects?

Options:

A.

Risk management, probability and cost

B.

Reliability, security, performance

C.

Reliability, security, cost

D.

Reliability, probability, performance

Question 22

Management has a strategy to ensure that ____________ is effective and will trigger separate evaluations where problems are identified or systems are critical and testing is periodically desirable.

Options:

A.

System monitoring

B.

Activity-level monitoring

C.

Internal control monitoring

D.

Ongoing monitoring

Question 23

Which of the following are the methods of analyzing data in summative evaluation program?

Options:

A.

Environment analysis & Report examination

B.

Tools analysis & Contact summary forms

C.

Content analysis & Contact tests

D.

Content analysis & Contact summary forms

Question 24

The process an organization uses to determine where it is headed in the coming years, the objectives it hopes to achieve, the methods it will use and its performance measures, is called:

Options:

A.

Strategic Planning

B.

Premeditated Planning

C.

Deliberate Planning

D.

Intended Planning

Question 25

Weak internal controls, lack of fraud policy, fiscal problems are all fraud warning signs of:

Options:

A.

Personality characteristics

B.

Organizational characteristics

C.

Operational characteristics

D.

Risk characteristics

Question 26

Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.

Options:

A.

Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality

B.

Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency

C.

Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency

D.

Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise

Question 27

Fill in the Blanks

________ are the targets or goals that an organization to needs to achieve in order to fulfill its purpose as articulated in its mission, mission and value statements.

Options:

Question 28

The internal audit activity should evaluate risk exposures relating to the organization’s risk management system, is:

Options:

A.

2010.A1-Risk management standard

B.

2110.A2-Risk management standard

C.

2110.A3-Risk management standard

D.

2010.A4-Risk management standard

Question 29

Project risk assessment is:

Options:

A.

A blend of risk assessment in the implementation phase and risk management in the planning phase.

B.

A blend of risk assessment in the designing phase and risk management in the planning phase.

C.

A blend of risk assessment in the planning phase and risk management in the implementation phase.

D.

A blend of risk assessment in the design phase and risk management in the implementation phase.

Question 30

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

In control-based format, the facilitator identifies the key risks and their mitigation controls before the beginning of the workshop.

B.

In process-based format, the facilitator identifies the key risks and their mitigation controls before the beginning of the workshop.

C.

In control-based format, the facilitator identifies the key risks and their mitigation controls after the beginning of the workshop.

D.

In risk-based format, the facilitator identifies the key risks and their mitigation controls after the beginning of the workshop.

Question 31

____________ refers the assessment of risks and opportunities affecting the achievement of the organization’s goals and objectives.

Options:

A.

Organizational risk management

B.

Operational risk assessment

C.

Business risk management

D.

Business risk assessment

Question 32

Operational risk is the day to day mitigation of safety and health risks of employees performing their jobs.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 33

_________ are preferred if the culture in the organization may hinder open, candid discussions in workshop settings or of management desires to minimize the time spent and cost incurred in gathering the information.

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Surveys

C.

Dialogues

D.

Conferences

Question 34

_________ structures tend to evolve in highly formal, centralized organizations where employees are subject to strict controls and little flexibility in decision making.

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Professional

C.

Mechanistic

D.

Organic

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT the entity’s objective that is consistent with the entity’s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Operations

C.

Reporting

D.

Internal environment

Question 36

When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their judgment, this refers to:

Options:

A.

Veracity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Integrity

D.

Accuracy

Question 37

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment approach it is done by auditors.

B.

In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.

C.

In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach it is done by management.

D.

In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment approach it is also done by auditors.

Question 38

___________ is charged with overseeing the establishment, administration and evaluation of the processes of risk management and control.

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Junior management

C.

Governance

D.

Organization

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT the step in developing the strategic planning process?

Options:

A.

To determine the amount of change occurring in the organization.

B.

Develop one or more general statements in the form of mission and objective.

C.

Develop specific plans for achieving objectives.

D.

Communicate the plan to affected staff.

Question 40

Failure to effectively correct inappropriate behavior could result in a breakdown in the group dynamic and the entire CSA process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Page: 1 / 27
Total 270 questions