ISC CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Exam Practice Test

In a ciphertext only attack, an attacker obtains encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm.

The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. Answer: C, B, and A are incorrect. These phases do not take place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system.

John will perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network. Fingerprinting is the easiest way to detect the Operating System (OS) of a remote system. OS detection is important because, after knowing the target system's OS, it becomes easier to hack into the system. The comparison of data packets that are sent by the target system is done by fingerprinting. The analysis of data packets gives the attacker a hint as to which operating system is being used by the remote system. There are two types of fingerprinting techniques as follows: 1.Active fingerprinting 2.Passive fingerprinting In active fingerprinting ICMP messages are sent to the target system and the response message of the target system shows which OS is being used by the remote system. In passive fingerprinting the number of hops reveals the OS of the remote system. Answer: D and B are incorrect. John should perform OS fingerprinting first, after which it will be easy to identify which services are running on the network since there are many services that run only on a specific operating system. After performing OS fingerprinting, John should perform networking mapping. Answer: C is incorrect. This is a pre-attack phase, and only after gathering all relevant knowledge of a network should John install a backdoor.

According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Following are the various U.S. Department of Defense information security standards: DC Security Design & Configuration IA Identification and Authentication EC Enclave and Computing Environment EB Enclave Boundary Defense PE Physical and Environmental PR Personnel CO Continuity VI Vulnerability and Incident Management Answer: B is incorrect. Business continuity management is an International information security standard.

The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process, store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer: E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.

The various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process are as follows: Determine software product or service requirements. Identify associated risks. Develop software requirements. Create acquisition strategy. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan. Define development and use of SwA due diligence questionnaires. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed in the monitoring and acceptance phase of the Software Assurance acquisition process.

Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means "the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder". Answer: D is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: B is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.

An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted attempts at accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a network, such as the Internet. These attempts may take the form of attacks, as examples, by crackers, malware and/or disgruntled employees. An IDS cannot directly detect attacks within properly encrypted traffic. An intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, data driven attacks on applications, host based attacks such as privilege escalation, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and worms). Answer: D is incorrect. Access Control List (ACL) is the most commonly used object in Cisco IOS. It filters packets or network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at the router's interfaces. According to the criteria specified within the access lists, router determines whether the packets to be forwarded or dropped. Access control list criteria could be the source or destination address of the traffic or other information. The types of Cisco ACLs are Standard IP, Extended IP, IPX, Appletalk, etc. Answer: B is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured, its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram's origin to the receiver. Answer: A is incorrect. Direct-attached storage (DAS) is a digital storage system that is directly attached to a server or workstation, without using a storage network.

The annualized loss expectancy will be $360,000. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as follows:

ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

Here, it is as follows:

SLE = Asset value * EF (Exposure factor)

= 600,000 * (30/100)

= 600,000 * 0.30

= 180,000

ALE = SLE * ARO

= 180,000 * 2

= 360,000

Answer: C, B, and D are incorrect. These are not valid answers.

Phase 4, Post Accreditation Phase of the DITSCAP includes the activities, which are necessary for the continuing operation of an accredited IT system in its computing environment and for addressing the changing threats that a system faces throughout its life cycle. Answer: B is incorrect. Phase 1, Definition, focuses on understanding the mission, the environment, and the architecture in order to determine the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve accreditation. Answer: C is incorrect. Phase 2, Verification, verifies the evolving or modified system's compliance with the information agreed on in the System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA). Answer: A is incorrect. Phase 3 validates the compliance of a fully integrated system with the information stated in the SSAA.

The annualized loss expectancy in her project will be $2,500. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the annually expected financial loss to an organization from a threat. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as follows: ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Here, it is as follows:

ALE = SLE * ARO

= 250,000 * 0.01

= 2,500

Answer: D, C, and A are incorrect. These are not valid answers.

Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for additional analysis.

The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer: D is incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most commonly used technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.

A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. It provides the backup facility, which is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility.

A hot site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. A hot site is located off site and provides the best protection. It is an exact replica of the current data center. In case a disaster struck to the data center, administrators just need to take the backup of recent data in hot site and the data center is back online in a very short time. It is very expensive to create and maintain the hot site. There are lots of third party companies that provide disaster recovery solutions by maintaining hot sites at their end. Answer: A is incorrect. A cold site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. This is the least expensive disaster recovery solution, usually having only a single room with no equipment. All equipment is brought to the site after the disaster. It can be on site or off site. Answer: D is incorrect. Mobile sites are self-reliant, portable shells custom-fitted with definite telecommunications and IT equipment essential to meet system requirements. These are presented for lease through commercial vendors. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is, quite logically, a compromise between hot and cold sites. Warm sites will have hardware and connectivity already established, though on a smaller scale than the original production site or even a hot site. These sites will have backups on hand, but they may not be complete and may be between several days and a week old. An example would be backup tapes sent to the warm site by courier.

Qualitative risk analysis is the best answer as it is a fast and low-cost approach to analyze the risk impact and its effect. It can promote certain risks onto risk response planning. Qualitative Risk Analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. Qualitative Risk Analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or Risk Response Plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a concern to impact on the project's scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. The qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process are: Organizational process assets Project Scope Statement Risk Management Plan Risk Register Answer: B is incorrect. Historical information can be helpful in the qualitative risk analysis, but it is not the best answer for the question as historical information is not always available (consider new projects). Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis is in-depth and often requires a schedule and budget for the analysis. Answer: C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is not a valid answer for risk analysis processes.

According to the Lanham Act, domain names fall under trademarks law. A new section 43(d) of the Trademark Act (Lanham Act) states that anyone who in bad faith registers, traffics in, or uses a domain name that infringes or dilutes another's trademark has committed trademark infringement. Factors involved in assessing bad faith focus on activities typically associated with cyberpiracy or cybersquatting, such as whether the registrant has offered to sell the domain name to the trademark holder for financial gain without having used or intended to use it for a bona fide business; whether the domain-name registrant registered multiple domain names that are confusingly similar to the trademarks of others; and whether the trademark incorporated in the domain name is distinctive and famous. Other factors are whether the domain name consists of the legal name or common handle of the domain-name registrant and whether the domain-name registrant previously used the mark in connection with a bona fide business.

An Information System Security Officer (ISSO) plays the role of a supporter. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Officer (ISSO) are as follows: Manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A). Insures the information systems configuration with the agency's information security policy. Supports the information system owner/information owner for the completion of security-related responsibilities. Takes part in the formal configuration management process. Prepares Certification & Accreditation (C&A) packages. An Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) plays the role of an advisor. The responsibilities of an Information System Security Engineer are as follows:

Provides view on the continuous monitoring of the information system. Provides advice on the impacts of system changes. Takes part in the configuration management process. Takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes. Follows approved system changes.

A checklist test is a test in which the disaster recovery checklists are distributed to the members of the disaster recovery team. All members are asked to review the assigned checklist. The checklist test is a simple test and it is easy to conduct this test. It allows to accomplish the following three goals: It ensures that the employees are aware of their responsibilities and they have the refreshed knowledge. It provides an individual with an opportunity to review the checklists for obsolete information and update any items that require modification during the changes in the organization. It ensures that the assigned members of disaster recovery team are still working for the organization. Answer: B is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just like a structured walk- through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined carefully for avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities. Answer: A is incorrect. A parallel test includes the next level in the testing procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization's business. Answer: C is incorrect. A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails.

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the process of embedding information into software in a way that is difficult to remove. Answer: C is incorrect. Encryption wrapper dynamically encrypts and decrypts all the software code at runtime. Answer: D is incorrect. Code obfuscation is designed to protect code from decompilation.

Brute force attack is the most likely cause of the account lockouts. In a brute force attack, unauthorized users attempt to log on to a network or a computer by using multiple possible user names and passwords. Windows 2000 and other network operating systems have a security feature that locks a user account if the number of failed logon attempts occur within a specified period of time, based on the security policy lockout settings. Answer: A is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer: C is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers running on the TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol-level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer: D is incorrect. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer, it is known as a PING attack.

Cryptanalysis is the process of analyzing cipher text and finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms. These weaknesses can be used to decipher the cipher text without knowing the secret key. Answer: C is incorrect. Kerberos is an industry standard authentication protocol used to verify user or host identity. Kerberos v5 authentication protocol is the default authentication service for Windows 2000. It is integrated into the administrative and security model, and provides secure communication between Windows 2000 Server domains and clients. Answer: A is incorrect. A cryptographer is a person who is involved in cryptography.

Answer: B is incorrect. Cryptography is a branch of computer science and mathematics. It is used for protecting information by encoding it into an unreadable format known as cipher text.

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system's life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition 2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation

Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance (IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form. Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computer security.

Answer: A is incorrect. The classic information security model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. The classic information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to remember, and when properly understood, can prompt systems designers and users to address the most pressing aspects of assurance. Answer: B is incorrect. The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: "Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities." The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.

Digital rights management (DRM) is an access control technology used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices. It describes the technology that prevents the uses of digital content that were not desired or foreseen by the content provider. DRM does not refer to other forms of copy protection which can be circumvented without modifying the file or device, such as serial numbers or keyfiles. It can also refer to restrictions associated with specific instances of digital works or devices. Answer: C is incorrect. Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts in order to confirm the software author, and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it is signed by use of a cryptographic hash. Answer: A is incorrect. A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides isolation to the host's resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer: B is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer: B is incorrect. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption. Answer: C is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute's official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. Answer: D is incorrect. The Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) is a United States intergovernmental organization that sets policy for the security of the US security systems. The CNSS holds discussions of policy issues, sets national policy, directions, operational procedures, and guidance for the information systems operated by the U.S. Government, its contractors, or agents that contain classified information, involve intelligence activities, involve cryptographic activities related to national security, etc. Answer: A is incorrect.

The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co-operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA's work is limited to communications intelligence. It does not perform field or human intelligence activities. Answer: C is incorrect. The United States Congress is the bicameral legislature of the federal government of the United States of America. It consists of the Senate and the House of Representatives. The Congress meets in the United States Capitol in Washington, D.C. Both senators and representatives are chosen through direct election. Each of the 435 members of the House of Representatives represents a district and serves a two-year term. House seats are apportioned among the states by population. The 100 Senators serve staggered six-year terms. Each state has two senators, regardless of population. Every two years, approximately one-third of the Senate is elected at a time. The United States Congress main function is to make laws. The Office of the Law Revision Counsel organizes and publishes the United States Code (USC). It is a consolidation and codification by subject matter of the general and permanent laws of the United States.

The various DoD policy series are as follows:

The risk management plan defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and then monitored and controlled regardless of the structure of the organization. Answer: D is incorrect. The human resources management plan does define how risks will be analyzed. Answer: B is incorrect. The staffing management plan does define how risks will be analyzed. Answer: A is incorrect. The risk analysis plan does define how risks will be analyzed.

The main steps of performing risk analysis are as follows: Estimate the potential losses to the assets by determining their value. Evaluate the potential threats to the assets. Establish the threats probability and regularity. Answer: A is incorrect. Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs is one of the final steps taken after performing the risk analysis.

Qualitative ranks the probability and impact and then helps the project manager and team to determine which risks need further analysis. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis and action. It combines risks and their probability of occurrences and ranks them accordingly. It enables organizations to improve the project's performance by focusing on high-priority risks. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses. It also lays the foundation for Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk identification precedes this activity. Answer: B is incorrect. This process does not describe the decomposition and organization of risks that you will complete in a risk breakdown structure.

Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative analysis is the final step of risk analysis. Note the question tells you that Fred and the team will identify risks for additional analysis.

General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices:

Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.

Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.

The various security controls in the SDLC design phase are as follows:

Misuse Case Modeling: It is important that the inverse of the misuse cases be modeled to understand and address the security aspects of the software. The requirements traceability matrix can be used to track the misuse cases to the functionality of the software. Security Design and Architecture Review: This control can be introduced when the teams are engaged in the "functional" design and architecture review of the software. Threat and Risk Modeling: Threat modeling determines the attack surface of the software by examining its functionality for trust boundaries, data flow, entry points, and exit points. Risk modeling is performed by ranking the threats as they pertain to the users organization's business objectives, compliance and regulatory requirements and security exposures. Security Requirements and Test Cases Generation: All the above three security controls, i.e., Misuse Case Modeling, Security Design and Architecture Review, and Threat and Risk Modeling are used to produce the security requirements.

In this example you are using a system or process flowchart. These can help identify risks within the process flow, such as bottlenecks or redundancy. Answer: A is incorrect. A cause and effect diagram, also known as an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram, can reveal causal factors to the effect to be solved. Answer: B is incorrect. An influence diagram shows causal influences, time ordering of events and relationships among variables and outcomes. Answer: C is incorrect. Predecessor and successor diagramming is not a valid risk identification term.

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The Certification Determination and Accreditation phase is the third phase in the DIACAP process. Its subordinate tasks are as follows: Analyze residual risk. Issue certification determination. Make accreditation decision. Answer: A is incorrect. Phase 1 is known as Initiate and Plan IA C&A. Answer: C is incorrect. Phase 2 is used to implement and validate assigned IA controls. Answer: E is incorrect. Phase 3 is used to make certification determination and accreditation decisions. Answer: B is incorrect. Phase 5 is known as decommission system and is used to conduct activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects.

ISO 27004 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques - Information security management - Measurement". The ISO 27004 standard provides guidelines on specifications and use of measurement techniques for the assessment of the effectiveness of an implemented information security management system and controls. It also helps an organization in establishing the effectiveness of ISMS implementation, embracing benchmarking, and performance targeting within the PDCA (plan-do-check-act) cycle. Answer: A is incorrect. ISO 27003 is entitled as "Information Technology - Security techniques - Information security management system implementation guidance". Answer: B is incorrect. ISO 27005 is entitled as "ISO/IEC 27005:2008 Information technology -- Security techniques -- Information security risk management". Answer: D is incorrect. ISO 27006 is entitled as "Information technology - Security techniques - Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems".

C&A consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order of these phases is as follows: 1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve Certification & Accreditation (C&A). 2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified system's compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready for certification testing. 3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process. 4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk.

Confidentiality is violated in a shoulder surfing attack. The CIA triad provides the following three tenets for which security practices are measured: Confidentiality: It is the property of preventing disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or systems. Breaches of confidentiality take many forms. Permitting someone to look over your shoulder at your computer screen while you have confidential data displayed on it could be a breach of confidentiality. If a laptop computer containing sensitive information about a company's employees is stolen or sold, it could result in a breach of confidentiality. Integrity: It means that data cannot be modified without authorization. Integrity is violated when an employee accidentally or with malicious intent deletes important data files, when a computer virus infects a computer, when an employee is able to modify his own salary in a payroll database, when an unauthorized user vandalizes a web site, when someone is able to cast a very large number of votes in an online poll, and so on. Availability: It means that data must be available at every time when it is needed. Answer: D is incorrect. Authenticity is not a tenet of the CIA triad.

At this point all that Rob can likely do is accepting the risk event. Because this is an external risk, there is little that Rob can do other than document the risk and share the new with management and the project stakeholders. If the law is passed then Rob can choose the most appropriate way for the project to continue. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: B is incorrect. Mitigation aims to lower the probability and/or impact of the risk event. Answer: C is incorrect. Transference transfers the ownership of the risk event to a third party, usually through a contractual agreement. Answer: D is incorrect. Enhance is a risk response that tries to increase the probability and/or impact of the positive risk event.

Contingency plan is prepared and documented for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as the element of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation. A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and "triggers" for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption.

Answer: D is incorrect. A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that can be critical for a business. It should also include the plan for sudden loss such as hard disc crash. The business should use backup and data recovery utilities to limit the loss of data. Answer: A is incorrect. The Continuity Of Operation Plan (COOP) refers to the preparations and institutions maintained by the United States government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization's essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable. Answer: B is incorrect. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan.

You will most probably find this information in the Service Level Agreement document. Amongst other information, SLA contains information about the agreed Service Hours and maintenance slots for any particular Service. Service Level Agreement (frequently abbreviated as SLA) is a part of a service contract where the level of service is formally defined. In practice, the term SLA is sometimes used to refer to the contracted delivery time (of the service) or performance. Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the other is the service provider. This can be a legally binding formal or informal 'contract'. Contracts between the Service Provider and other third parties are often (incorrectly) called SLAs, as the level of service has been set by the (principal) customer there can be no 'agreement' between third parties (these agreements are simply a 'contract'). Operating Level Agreements or OLA(s) however, may be used by internal groups to support SLA (s).

Answer: B is incorrect. Release Policy is a set of rules for deploying releases into the live operational environment, defining different approaches for releases depending on their urgency and impact. Answer: C is incorrect. The Service Level Requirements document contains the requirements for a service from the client viewpoint, defining detailed service level targets, mutual responsibilities, and other requirements specific to a certain group of customers. Answer: D is incorrect. Underpinning Contract (UC) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party. In another way, it is an agreement between the IT organization and an external provider about the delivery of one or more services. The third party provides services that support the delivery of a service to a customer. The Underpinning Contract defines targets and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA.

It is the implementation phase, in which the system's security features are configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing. A design review and systems test should be performed prior to placing the system into operation to ensure that it meets security specifications. Answer: B is incorrect. In Operation/Maintenance Phase, the system performs its work. The system is almost always being continuously modified by the addition of hardware and software and by numerous other events. Answer: D is incorrect. In the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: A is incorrect. In Development/Acquisition Phase, the system is designed, purchased, programmed, developed, or otherwise constructed.

A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides isolation to the host's resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer: A is incorrect. Emulator duplicates the functions of one system using a different system, so that the second system behaves like the first system. Answer: D is incorrect. CP/CMS is a time-sharing operating system of the late 60s and early 70s, and it is known for its excellent performance and advanced features. Answer: C is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to as confidential information or classified information. Answer: A is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer: B is incorrect. A utility model is an intellectual property right to protect inventions. Answer: D is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies are stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a Web server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the information. A Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers.

The first action of a management program to implement information security is to have a security program in place. The objectives of a security program are as follows: Protect the company and its assets Manage risks by identifying assets, discovering threats, and estimating the risk Provide direction for security activities by framing of information security policies, procedures, standards, guidelines and baselines Information classification Security organization Security education Answer: C is incorrect. System classification is not one of the objectives of a security program.

NIACAP accreditation is of three types depending on what is being certified. They are as follows: 1.Site accreditation: This type of accreditation evaluates the applications and systems at a specific, self contained location. 2.Type accreditation: This type of accreditation evaluates an application or system that is distributed to a number of different locations. 3.System accreditation: This accreditation evaluates a major application or general support system. Answer: C is incorrect. No such type of NIACAP accreditation exists.

Teardrop is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled. In this attack, corrupt packets are sent to the victim's computer by using IP's packet fragmentation algorithm. As a result of this attack, the victim's computer might hang. Answer: D is incorrect. Smurf is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding. Answer: C is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks. Answer: A is incorrect. A password guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack

In private cloud, the cloud infrastructure is operated exclusively for an organization. The private cloud infrastructure is administered by the organization or a third party, and exists on premise and off premise. In community cloud, the cloud infrastructure is shared by a number of organizations and supports a particular community. The community cloud infrastructure is administered by the organizations or a third party and exists on premise or off premise. Answer: B is incorrect. In public cloud, the cloud infrastructure is administered by an organization that sells cloud services. Answer: C is incorrect. In hybrid cloud, the cloud infrastructure is administered by both, i.e., an organization and a third party.

A Chief Information Officer (CIO) plays the role of a leader. The responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer are as follows: Establishes effective continuous monitoring program for the organization. Facilitates continuous monitoring process for the organizations. Preserves high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization.

Confirms that information systems are covered by a permitted security plan and monitored throughout the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). Manages and delegates decisions to employees in large enterprises. Proposes the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then works within a budget to implement the plan. Answer: A is incorrect. A Risk Executive facilitates the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials.

Non-repudiation is a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a message. It provides an evidence of the identity of the senderand message integrity. It also prevents a person from denying the submission or delivery of the message and the integrity of its contents. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person or network host. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality ensures that no one can read a message except the intended receiver. Answer: D is incorrect. Integrity assures the receiver that the received message has not been altered in any way from the original.

Graybox testing is a combination of whitebox testing and blackbox testing. In graybox testing, the test engineer is equipped with the knowledge of system and designs test cases or test data based on system knowledge. The security tester typically performs graybox testing to find vulnerabilities in software and network system. Answer: C is incorrect. Whitebox testing is a testing technique in which an organization provides full knowledge about the infrastructure to the testing team. The information, provided by the organization, often includes network diagrams, source codes, and IP addressing information of the infrastructure to be tested. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: B is incorrect. Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced.