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ISC SSCP Systems Security Certified Practitioner Exam Practice Test

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Total 1074 questions

Systems Security Certified Practitioner Questions and Answers

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Question 1

In the process of gathering evidence from a computer attack, a system administrator took a series of actions which are listed below. Can you identify which one of these actions has compromised the whole evidence collection process?

Options:

A.

Using a write blocker

B.

Made a full-disk image

C.

Created a message digest for log files

D.

Displayed the contents of a folder

Question 2

Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems uses behavioral characteristics of a system’s operation or network traffic to draw conclusions on whether the traffic represents a risk to the network or host?

Options:

A.

Network-based ID systems.

B.

Anomaly Detection.

C.

Host-based ID systems.

D.

Signature Analysis.

Question 3

What ensures that the control mechanisms correctly implement the security policy for the entire life cycle of an information system?

Options:

A.

Accountability controls

B.

Mandatory access controls

C.

Assurance procedures

D.

Administrative controls

Question 4

What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

Options:

A.

It can be very invasive to the host operating system

B.

Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only

C.

Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption

D.

They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

Question 5

Which one of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of network-based Intrusion detection systems is true

Options:

A.

Network-based IDSs are not vulnerable to attacks.

B.

Network-based IDSs are well suited for modern switch-based networks.

C.

Most network-based IDSs can automatically indicate whether or not an attack was successful.

D.

The deployment of network-based IDSs has little impact upon an existing network.

Question 6

Which of the following reviews system and event logs to detect attacks on the host and determine if the attack was successful?

Options:

A.

host-based IDS

B.

firewall-based IDS

C.

bastion-based IDS

D.

server-based IDS

Question 7

Who can best decide what are the adequate technical security controls in a computer-based application system in regards to the protection of the data being used, the criticality of the data, and it's sensitivity level ?

Options:

A.

System Auditor

B.

Data or Information Owner

C.

System Manager

D.

Data or Information user

Question 8

Knowledge-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are more common than:

Options:

A.

Network-based IDS

B.

Host-based IDS

C.

Behavior-based IDS

D.

Application-Based IDS

Question 9

What IDS approach relies on a database of known attacks?

Options:

A.

Signature-based intrusion detection

B.

Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

C.

Behavior-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

Question 10

Which of the following are additional terms used to describe knowledge-based IDS and behavior-based IDS?

Options:

A.

signature-based IDS and statistical anomaly-based IDS, respectively

B.

signature-based IDS and dynamic anomaly-based IDS, respectively

C.

anomaly-based IDS and statistical-based IDS, respectively

D.

signature-based IDS and motion anomaly-based IDS, respectively.

Question 11

Who should measure the effectiveness of Information System security related controls in an organization?

Options:

A.

The local security specialist

B.

The business manager

C.

The systems auditor

D.

The central security manager

Question 12

Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished:

Options:

A.

through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function.

B.

through logical or technical controls involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

C.

through logical or technical controls but not involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

D.

through access control mechanisms that do not require identification and authentication and do not operate through the audit function.

Question 13

A host-based IDS is resident on which of the following?

Options:

A.

On each of the critical hosts

B.

decentralized hosts

C.

central hosts

D.

bastion hosts

Question 14

A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which of the basic security functions?

Options:

A.

avoidance

B.

deterrence

C.

prevention

D.

detection

Question 15

Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

Options:

A.

audit trails.

B.

access control lists.

C.

security clearances

D.

host-based authentication

Question 16

Which of the following is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in real time to determine violations of system security policy that have taken place?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System

B.

Compliance Validation System

C.

Intrusion Management System (IMS)

D.

Compliance Monitoring System

Question 17

Which of the following is most likely to be useful in detecting intrusions?

Options:

A.

Access control lists

B.

Security labels

C.

Audit trails

D.

Information security policies

Question 18

In an online transaction processing system (OLTP), which of the following actions should be taken when erroneous or invalid transactions are detected?

Options:

A.

The transactions should be dropped from processing.

B.

The transactions should be processed after the program makes adjustments.

C.

The transactions should be written to a report and reviewed.

D.

The transactions should be corrected and reprocessed.

Question 19

The session layer provides a logical persistent connection between peer hosts. Which of the following is one of the modes used in the session layer to establish this connection?

Options:

A.

Full duplex

B.

Synchronous

C.

Asynchronous

D.

Half simplex

Question 20

What is the essential difference between a self-audit and an independent audit?

Options:

A.

Tools used

B.

Results

C.

Objectivity

D.

Competence

Question 21

Which of the following are the two MOST common implementations of Intrusion Detection Systems?

Options:

A.

Server-based and Host-based.

B.

Network-based and Guest-based.

C.

Network-based and Client-based.

D.

Network-based and Host-based.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a host-based intrusion detection system?

Options:

A.

A HIDS does not consume large amounts of system resources

B.

A HIDS can analyse system logs, processes and resources

C.

A HIDS looks for unauthorized changes to the system

D.

A HIDS can notify system administrators when unusual events are identified

Question 23

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect software license violations?

Options:

A.

Implementing a corporate policy on copyright infringements and software use.

B.

Requiring that all PCs be diskless workstations.

C.

Installing metering software on the LAN so applications can be accessed through the metered software.

D.

Regularly scanning PCs in use to ensure that unauthorized copies of software have not been loaded on the PC.

Question 24

Making sure that only those who are supposed to access the data can access is which of the following?

Options:

A.

confidentiality.

B.

capability.

C.

integrity.

D.

availability.

Question 25

Which of the following statements pertaining to protection rings is false?

Options:

A.

They provide strict boundaries and definitions on what the processes that work within each ring can access.

B.

Programs operating in inner rings are usually referred to as existing in a privileged mode.

C.

They support the CIA triad requirements of multitasking operating systems.

D.

They provide users with a direct access to peripherals

Question 26

Who should DECIDE how a company should approach security and what security measures should be implemented?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Data owner

C.

Auditor

D.

The information security specialist

Question 27

The control of communications test equipment should be clearly addressed by security policy for which of the following reasons?

Options:

A.

Test equipment is easily damaged.

B.

Test equipment can be used to browse information passing on a network.

C.

Test equipment is difficult to replace if lost or stolen.

D.

Test equipment must always be available for the maintenance personnel.

Question 28

Which software development model is actually a meta-model that incorporates a number of the software development models?

Options:

A.

The Waterfall model

B.

The modified Waterfall model

C.

The Spiral model

D.

The Critical Path Model (CPM)

Question 29

Within the context of the CBK, which of the following provides a MINIMUM level of security ACCEPTABLE for an environment ?

Options:

A.

A baseline

B.

A standard

C.

A procedure

D.

A guideline

Question 30

Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to follow?

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Guidelines

C.

Procedures

D.

Baselines

Question 31

Which of the following is an advantage of prototyping?

Options:

A.

Prototype systems can provide significant time and cost savings.

B.

Change control is often less complicated with prototype systems.

C.

It ensures that functions or extras are not added to the intended system.

D.

Strong internal controls are easier to implement.

Question 32

An Architecture where there are more than two execution domains or privilege levels is called:

Options:

A.

Ring Architecture.

B.

Ring Layering

C.

Network Environment.

D.

Security Models

Question 33

Who is ultimately responsible for the security of computer based information systems within an organization?

Options:

A.

The tech support team

B.

The Operation Team.

C.

The management team.

D.

The training team.

Question 34

Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed for information systems resources?

Options:

A.

IS security specialists

B.

Senior Management

C.

Senior security analysts

D.

systems Auditors

Question 35

Degaussing is used to clear data from all of the following medias except:

Options:

A.

Floppy Disks

B.

Read-Only Media

C.

Video Tapes

D.

Magnetic Hard Disks

Question 36

Which of the following is a set of data processing elements that increases the performance in a computer by overlapping the steps of different instructions?

Options:

A.

pipelining

B.

complex-instruction-set-computer (CISC)

C.

reduced-instruction-set-computer (RISC)

D.

multitasking

Question 37

What is RAD?

Options:

A.

A development methodology

B.

A project management technique

C.

A measure of system complexity

D.

Risk-assessment diagramming

Question 38

Which of the following is used to interrupt the opportunity to use or perform collusion to subvert operation for fraudulent purposes?

Options:

A.

Key escrow

B.

Rotation of duties

C.

Principle of need-to-know

D.

Principle of least privilege

Question 39

Related to information security, availability is the opposite of which of the following?

Options:

A.

delegation

B.

distribution

C.

documentation

D.

destruction

Question 40

What prevents a process from accessing another process' data?

Options:

A.

Memory segmentation

B.

Process isolation

C.

The reference monitor

D.

Data hiding

Question 41

A Security Kernel is defined as a strict implementation of a reference monitor mechanism responsible for enforcing a security policy. To be secure, the kernel must meet three basic conditions, what are they?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

B.

Policy, mechanism, and assurance

C.

Isolation, layering, and abstraction

D.

Completeness, Isolation, and Verifiability

Question 42

The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) was written to address which of the following that the Orange Book did not address?

Options:

A.

integrity and confidentiality.

B.

confidentiality and availability.

C.

integrity and availability.

D.

none of the above.

Question 43

What is the main purpose of Corporate Security Policy?

Options:

A.

To transfer the responsibility for the information security to all users of the organization

B.

To communicate management's intentions in regards to information security

C.

To provide detailed steps for performing specific actions

D.

To provide a common framework for all development activities

Question 44

Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?

Options:

A.

People

B.

Software

C.

Communications

D.

Hardware

Question 45

Which of the following does not address Database Management Systems (DBMS) Security?

Options:

A.

Perturbation

B.

Cell suppression

C.

Padded cells

D.

Partitioning

Question 46

Which of the following phases of a software development life cycle normally addresses Due Care and Due Diligence?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

System feasibility

C.

Product design

D.

Software plans and requirements

Question 47

When you update records in multiple locations or you make a copy of the whole database at a remote location as a way to achieve the proper level of fault-tolerance and redundancy, it is knows as?

Options:

A.

Shadowing

B.

Data mirroring

C.

Backup

D.

Archiving

Question 48

To be admissible in court, computer evidence must be which of the following?

Options:

A.

Relevant

B.

Decrypted

C.

Edited

D.

Incriminating

Question 49

What can be described as a measure of the magnitude of loss or impact on the value of an asset?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Exposure factor

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Threat

Question 50

What assesses potential loss that could be caused by a disaster?

Options:

A.

The Business Assessment (BA)

B.

The Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

C.

The Risk Assessment (RA)

D.

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

Question 51

Which of the following is a problem regarding computer investigation issues?

Options:

A.

Information is tangible.

B.

Evidence is easy to gather.

C.

Computer-generated records are only considered secondary evidence, thus are not as reliable as best evidence.

D.

In many instances, an expert or specialist is not required.

Question 52

Which of the following statements pertaining to disaster recovery is incorrect?

Options:

A.

A recovery team's primary task is to get the pre-defined critical business functions at the alternate backup processing site.

B.

A salvage team's task is to ensure that the primary site returns to normal processing conditions.

C.

The disaster recovery plan should include how the company will return from the alternate site to the primary site.

D.

When returning to the primary site, the most critical applications should be brought back first.

Question 53

What is a hot-site facility?

Options:

A.

A site with pre-installed computers, raised flooring, air conditioning, telecommunications and networking equipment, and UPS.

B.

A site in which space is reserved with pre-installed wiring and raised floors.

C.

A site with raised flooring, air conditioning, telecommunications, and networking equipment, and UPS.

D.

A site with ready made work space with telecommunications equipment, LANs, PCs, and terminals for work groups.

Question 54

What is the most correct choice below when talking about the steps to resume normal operation at the primary site after the green light has been given by the salvage team?

Options:

A.

The most critical operations are moved from alternate site to primary site before others

B.

Operation may be carried by a completely different team than disaster recovery team

C.

The least critical functions should be moved back first

D.

You moves items back in the same order as the categories document in your plan or exactly in the same order as you did on your way to the alternate site

Question 55

For which areas of the enterprise are business continuity plans required?

Options:

A.

All areas of the enterprise.

B.

The financial and information processing areas of the enterprise.

C.

The operating areas of the enterprise.

D.

The marketing, finance, and information processing areas.

Question 56

Which of the following statements regarding an off-site information processing facility is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the primary processing site.

B.

It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational.

C.

It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found.

D.

Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive.

Question 57

Which of the following backup methods makes a complete backup of every file on the server every time it is run?

Options:

A.

full backup method.

B.

incremental backup method.

C.

differential backup method.

D.

tape backup method.

Question 58

Which of the following is biggest factor that makes Computer Crimes possible?

Options:

A.

The fraudster obtaining advanced training & special knowledge.

B.

Victim carelessness.

C.

Collusion with others in information processing.

D.

System design flaws.

Question 59

Which of the following is the most complete disaster recovery plan test type, to be performed after successfully completing the Parallel test?

Options:

A.

Full Interruption test

B.

Checklist test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Structured walk-through test

Question 60

Which of the following results in the most devastating business interruptions?

Options:

A.

Loss of Hardware/Software

B.

Loss of Data

C.

Loss of Communication Links

D.

Loss of Applications

Question 61

Which of the following statements pertaining to a Criticality Survey is incorrect?

Options:

A.

It is implemented to gather input from all personnel that is going to be part of the recovery teams.

B.

The purpose of the survey must be clearly stated.

C.

Management's approval should be obtained before distributing the survey.

D.

Its intent is to find out what services and systems are critical to keeping the organization in business.

Question 62

Which backup method is used if backup time is critical and tape space is at an extreme premium?

Options:

A.

Incremental backup method.

B.

Differential backup method.

C.

Full backup method.

D.

Tape backup method.

Question 63

Which of the following will a Business Impact Analysis NOT identify?

Options:

A.

Areas that would suffer the greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster.

B.

Systems critical to the survival of the enterprise.

C.

The names of individuals to be contacted during a disaster.

D.

The outage time that can be tolerated by the enterprise as a result of a disaster.

Question 64

Devices that supply power when the commercial utility power system fails are called which of the following?

Options:

A.

power conditioners

B.

uninterruptible power supplies

C.

power filters

D.

power dividers

Question 65

Which of the following is covered under Crime Insurance Policy Coverage?

Options:

A.

Inscribed, printed and Written documents

B.

Manuscripts

C.

Accounts Receivable

D.

Money and Securities

Question 66

If an employee's computer has been used by a fraudulent employee to commit a crime, the hard disk may be seized as evidence and once the investigation is complete it would follow the normal steps of the Evidence Life Cycle. In such case, the Evidence life cycle would not include which of the following steps listed below?

Options:

A.

Acquisition collection and identification

B.

Analysis

C.

Storage, preservation, and transportation

D.

Destruction

Question 67

A copy of evidence or oral description of its contents; which is not as reliable as best evidence is what type of evidence?

Options:

A.

Direct evidence

B.

Circumstantial evidence

C.

Hearsay evidence

D.

Secondary evidence

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a correct notation for an IPv6 address?

Options:

A.

2001:0db8:0:0:0:0:1428:57ab

B.

ABCD:EF01:2345:6789:ABCD:EF01:2345:6789

C.

::1

D.

2001:DB8::8:800::417A

Question 69

What can be best defined as the examination of threat sources against system vulnerabilities to determine the threats for a particular system in a particular operational environment?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Due diligence

Question 70

Which Network Address Translation (NAT) is the most convenient and secure solution?

Options:

A.

Hiding Network Address Translation

B.

Port Address Translation

C.

Dedicated Address Translation

D.

Static Address Translation

Question 71

The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 1, what type of data is contained within the IP datagram?

Options:

A.

TCP.

B.

ICMP.

C.

UDP.

D.

IGMP.

Question 72

Which of the following methods of providing telecommunications continuity involves the use of an alternative media?

Options:

A.

Alternative routing

B.

Diverse routing

C.

Long haul network diversity

D.

Last mile circuit protection

Question 73

A server cluster looks like a:

Options:

A.

single server from the user's point of view

B.

dual server from the user's point of view

C.

triple server from the user's point of view

D.

quardle server from the user's point of view

Question 74

SMTP can best be described as:

Options:

A.

a host-to-host email protocol.

B.

an email retrieval protocol.

C.

a web-based e-mail reading protocol.

D.

a standard defining the format of e-mail messages.

Question 75

Which of the following is the primary security feature of a proxy server?

Options:

A.

Virus Detection

B.

URL blocking

C.

Route blocking

D.

Content filtering

Question 76

Which of the following was designed to support multiple network types over the same serial link?

Options:

A.

Ethernet

B.

SLIP

C.

PPP

D.

PPTP

Question 77

Which of the following statements pertaining to packet filtering is incorrect?

Options:

A.

It is based on ACLs.

B.

It is not application dependant.

C.

It operates at the network layer.

D.

It keeps track of the state of a connection.

Question 78

In the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) Reference Model, at what level are TCP and UDP provided?

Options:

A.

Transport

B.

Network

C.

Presentation

D.

Application

Question 79

What is the main difference between a Smurf and a Fraggle attack?

Options:

A.

A Smurf attack is ICMP-based and a Fraggle attack is UDP-based.

B.

A Smurf attack is UDP-based and a Fraggle attack is TCP-based.

C.

Smurf attack packets cannot be spoofed.

D.

A Smurf attack is UDP-based and a Fraggle attack is ICMP-based.

Question 80

Which of the following ports does NOT normally need to be open for a mail server to operate?

Options:

A.

Port 110

B.

Port 25

C.

Port 119

D.

Port 143

Question 81

What is the proper term to refer to a single unit of IP data?

Options:

A.

IP segment.

B.

IP datagram.

C.

IP frame.

D.

IP fragment.

Question 82

In which layer of the OSI Model are connection-oriented protocols located in the TCP/IP suite of protocols?

Options:

A.

Transport layer

B.

Application layer

C.

Physical layer

D.

Network layer

Question 83

Which of the following statements is NOT true of IPSec Transport mode?

Options:

A.

It is required for gateways providing access to internal systems

B.

Set-up when end-point is host or communications terminates at end-points

C.

If used in gateway-to-host communication, gateway must act as host

D.

When ESP is used for the security protocol, the hash is only applied to the upper layer protocols contained in the packet

Question 84

Which of the following IEEE standards defines the token ring media access method?

Options:

A.

802.3

B.

802.11

C.

802.5

D.

802.2

Question 85

In the days before CIDR (Classless Internet Domain Routing), networks were commonly organized by classes. Which of the following would have been true of a Class B network?

Options:

A.

The first bit of the IP address would be set to zero.

B.

The first bit of the IP address would be set to one and the second bit set to zero.

C.

The first two bits of the IP address would be set to one, and the third bit set to zero.

D.

The first three bits of the IP address would be set to one.

Question 86

What layer of the OSI/ISO model does Point-to-point tunnelling protocol (PPTP) work at?

Options:

A.

Data link layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Session layer

D.

Network layer

Question 87

Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a two-layered socket layer security protocol that contains the TLS Record Protocol and the::

Options:

A.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) Internet Protocol.

B.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) Data Protocol.

C.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) Link Protocol.

D.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) Handshake Protocol.

Question 88

Which IPSec operational mode encrypts the entire data packet (including header and data) into an IPSec packet?

Options:

A.

Authentication mode

B.

Tunnel mode

C.

Transport mode

D.

Safe mode

Question 89

Before the advent of classless addressing, the address 128.192.168.16 would have been considered part of:

Options:

A.

a class A network.

B.

a class B network.

C.

a class C network.

D.

a class D network.

Question 90

What is the main characteristic of a multi-homed host?

Options:

A.

It is placed between two routers or firewalls.

B.

It allows IP routing.

C.

It has multiple network interfaces, each connected to separate networks.

D.

It operates at multiple layers.

Question 91

Which of the following protocols operates at the session layer (layer 5)?

Options:

A.

RPC

B.

IGMP

C.

LPD

D.

SPX

Question 92

Which type of attack involves the alteration of a packet at the IP level to convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity in order to gain access to a system?

Options:

A.

TCP sequence number attack

B.

IP spoofing attack

C.

Piggybacking attack

D.

Teardrop attack

Question 93

What is called the type of access control where there are pairs of elements that have the least upper bound of values and greatest lower bound of values?

Options:

A.

Mandatory model

B.

Discretionary model

C.

Lattice model

D.

Rule model

Question 94

Which of the following statements pertaining to Kerberos is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Kerberos does not address availability

B.

Kerberos does not address integrity

C.

Kerberos does not make use of Symmetric Keys

D.

Kerberos cannot address confidentiality of information

Question 95

What refers to legitimate users accessing networked services that would normally be restricted to them?

Options:

A.

Spoofing

B.

Piggybacking

C.

Eavesdropping

D.

Logon abuse

Question 96

How would nonrepudiation be best classified as?

Options:

A.

A preventive control

B.

A logical control

C.

A corrective control

D.

A compensating control

Question 97

What does the simple security (ss) property mean in the Bell-LaPadula model?

Options:

A.

No read up

B.

No write down

C.

No read down

D.

No write up

Question 98

Rule-Based Access Control (RuBAC) access is determined by rules. Such rules would fit within what category of access control ?

Options:

A.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

B.

Mandatory Access control (MAC)

C.

Non-Discretionary Access Control (NDAC)

D.

Lattice-based Access control

Question 99

Passwords can be required to change monthly, quarterly, or at other intervals:

Options:

A.

depending on the criticality of the information needing protection

B.

depending on the criticality of the information needing protection and the password's frequency of use

C.

depending on the password's frequency of use

D.

not depending on the criticality of the information needing protection but depending on the password's frequency of use

Question 100

The "vulnerability of a facility" to damage or attack may be assessed by all of the following except:

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

History of losses

C.

Security controls

D.

security budget

Question 101

Which of the following division is defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as minimal protection?

Options:

A.

Division D

B.

Division C

C.

Division B

D.

Division A

Question 102

Which of the following is implemented through scripts or smart agents that replays the users multiple log-ins against authentication servers to verify a user's identity which permit access to system services?

Options:

A.

Single Sign-On

B.

Dynamic Sign-On

C.

Smart cards

D.

Kerberos

Question 103

Pin, Password, Passphrases, Tokens, smart cards, and biometric devices are all items that can be used for Authentication. When one of these item listed above in conjunction with a second factor to validate authentication, it provides robust authentication of the individual by practicing which of the following?

Options:

A.

Multi-party authentication

B.

Two-factor authentication

C.

Mandatory authentication

D.

Discretionary authentication

Question 104

Which of the following is NOT a technique used to perform a penetration test?

Options:

A.

traffic padding

B.

scanning and probing

C.

war dialing

D.

sniffing

Question 105

Which access control model achieves data integrity through well-formed transactions and separation of duties?

Options:

A.

Clark-Wilson model

B.

Biba model

C.

Non-interference model

D.

Sutherland model

Question 106

Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

Options:

A.

audit trails.

B.

access control lists.

C.

security clearances.

D.

host-based authentication.

Question 107

Access Control techniques do not include which of the following choices?

Options:

A.

Relevant Access Controls

B.

Discretionary Access Control

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Lattice Based Access Control

Question 108

Which access control model is best suited in an environment where a high security level is required and where it is desired that only the administrator grants access control?

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

MAC

C.

Access control matrix

D.

TACACS

Question 109

What are the components of an object's sensitivity label?

Options:

A.

A Classification Set and a single Compartment.

B.

A single classification and a single compartment.

C.

A Classification Set and user credentials.

D.

A single classification and a Compartment Set.

Question 110

What is called the act of a user professing an identity to a system, usually in the form of a log-on ID?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Confidentiality

Question 111

Which security model uses division of operations into different parts and requires different users to perform each part?

Options:

A.

Bell-LaPadula model

B.

Biba model

C.

Clark-Wilson model

D.

Non-interference model

Question 112

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:

Options:

A.

Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

B.

Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

C.

Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

D.

Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

Question 113

When a biometric system is used, which error type deals with the possibility of GRANTING access to impostors who should be REJECTED?

Options:

A.

Type I error

B.

Type II error

C.

Type III error

D.

Crossover error

Question 114

Which type of password provides maximum security because a new password is required for each new log-on?

Options:

A.

One-time or dynamic password

B.

Congnitive password

C.

Static password

D.

Passphrase

Question 115

Which authentication technique best protects against hijacking?

Options:

A.

Static authentication

B.

Continuous authentication

C.

Robust authentication

D.

Strong authentication

Question 116

What kind of Encryption technology does SSL utilize?

Options:

A.

Secret or Symmetric key

B.

Hybrid (both Symmetric and Asymmetric)

C.

Public Key

D.

Private key

Question 117

What principle focuses on the uniqueness of separate objects that must be joined together to perform a task? It is sometimes referred to as “what each must bring” and joined together when getting access or decrypting a file. Each of which does not reveal the other?

Options:

A.

Dual control

B.

Separation of duties

C.

Split knowledge

D.

Need to know

Question 118

A public key algorithm that does both encryption and digital signature is which of the following?

Options:

A.

RSA

B.

DES

C.

IDEA

D.

Diffie-Hellman

Question 119

What is the primary role of cross certification?

Options:

A.

Creating trust between different PKIs

B.

Build an overall PKI hierarchy

C.

set up direct trust to a second root CA

D.

Prevent the nullification of user certificates by CA certificate revocation

Question 120

What is the name for a substitution cipher that shifts the alphabet by 13 places?

Options:

A.

Caesar cipher

B.

Polyalphabetic cipher

C.

ROT13 cipher

D.

Transposition cipher

Question 121

Which of the following can best define the "revocation request grace period"?

Options:

A.

The period of time allotted within which the user must make a revocation request upon a revocation reason

B.

Minimum response time for performing a revocation by the CA

C.

Maximum response time for performing a revocation by the CA

D.

Time period between the arrival of a revocation request and the publication of the revocation information

Question 122

Which of the following is defined as a key establishment protocol based on the Diffie-Hellman algorithm proposed for IPsec but superseded by IKE?

Options:

A.

Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange Protocol

B.

Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)

C.

Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)

D.

OAKLEY

Question 123

Which of the following statements is true about data encryption as a method of protecting data?

Options:

A.

It should sometimes be used for password files

B.

It is usually easily administered

C.

It makes few demands on system resources

D.

It requires careful key management

Question 124

The RSA Algorithm uses which mathematical concept as the basis of its encryption?

Options:

A.

Geometry

B.

16-round ciphers

C.

PI (3.14159...)

D.

Two large prime numbers

Question 125

What algorithm has been selected as the AES algorithm, replacing the DES algorithm?

Options:

A.

RC6

B.

Twofish

C.

Rijndael

D.

Blowfish

Question 126

What is the length of an MD5 message digest?

Options:

A.

128 bits

B.

160 bits

C.

256 bits

D.

varies depending upon the message size.

Question 127

PGP uses which of the following to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

An asymmetric encryption algorithm

B.

A symmetric encryption algorithm

C.

A symmetric key distribution system

D.

An X.509 digital certificate

Question 128

Which of the following would best describe certificate path validation?

Options:

A.

Verification of the validity of all certificates of the certificate chain to the root certificate

B.

Verification of the integrity of the associated root certificate

C.

Verification of the integrity of the concerned private key

D.

Verification of the revocation status of the concerned certificate

Question 129

A code, as is pertains to cryptography:

Options:

A.

Is a generic term for encryption.

B.

Is specific to substitution ciphers.

C.

Deals with linguistic units.

D.

Is specific to transposition ciphers.

Question 130

What is the maximum allowable key size of the Rijndael encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

128 bits

B.

192 bits

C.

256 bits

D.

512 bits

Question 131

Which is NOT a suitable method for distributing certificate revocation information?

Options:

A.

CA revocation mailing list

B.

Delta CRL

C.

OCSP (online certificate status protocol)

D.

Distribution point CRL

Question 132

Which of the following is NOT a symmetric key algorithm?

Options:

A.

Blowfish

B.

Digital Signature Standard (DSS)

C.

Triple DES (3DES)

D.

RC5

Question 133

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses a Message Authentication Code (MAC) for what purpose?

Options:

A.

message non-repudiation.

B.

message confidentiality.

C.

message interleave checking.

D.

message integrity.

Question 134

What kind of certificate is used to validate a user identity?

Options:

A.

Public key certificate

B.

Attribute certificate

C.

Root certificate

D.

Code signing certificate

Question 135

The Clipper Chip utilizes which concept in public key cryptography?

Options:

A.

Substitution

B.

Key Escrow

C.

An undefined algorithm

D.

Super strong encryption

Question 136

What can be defined as an instance of two different keys generating the same ciphertext from the same plaintext?

Options:

A.

Key collision

B.

Key clustering

C.

Hashing

D.

Ciphertext collision

Question 137

What is the key size of the International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)?

Options:

A.

64 bits

B.

128 bits

C.

160 bits

D.

192 bits

Question 138

Which of the following can best be defined as a cryptanalysis technique in which the analyst tries to determine the key from knowledge of some plaintext-ciphertext pairs?

Options:

A.

A known-plaintext attack

B.

A known-algorithm attack

C.

A chosen-ciphertext attack

D.

A chosen-plaintext attack

Question 139

What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?

Options:

A.

Data fiddling

B.

Data diddling

C.

Salami techniques

D.

Trojan horses

Question 140

In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.

Options:

A.

virus

B.

worm

C.

Trojan horse.

D.

trapdoor

Question 141

Which of the following technologies is a target of XSS or CSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks?

Options:

A.

Web Applications

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Firewalls

D.

DNS Servers

Question 142

Which virus category has the capability of changing its own code, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software?

Options:

A.

Stealth viruses

B.

Polymorphic viruses

C.

Trojan horses

D.

Logic bombs

Question 143

Crackers today are MOST often motivated by their desire to:

Options:

A.

Help the community in securing their networks.

B.

Seeing how far their skills will take them.

C.

Getting recognition for their actions.

D.

Gaining Money or Financial Gains.

Question 144

Virus scanning and content inspection of SMIME encrypted e-mail without doing any further processing is:

Options:

A.

Not possible

B.

Only possible with key recovery scheme of all user keys

C.

It is possible only if X509 Version 3 certificates are used

D.

It is possible only by "brute force" decryption

Question 145

What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?

Options:

A.

They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.

B.

They have nothing in common.

C.

They are both masquerading attacks.

D.

They are both social engineering attacks.

Question 146

Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?

Options:

A.

Boot Sector

B.

Parasitic

C.

Stealth

D.

Polymorphic

Question 147

What is malware that can spread itself over open network connections?

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Rootkit

C.

Adware

D.

Logic Bomb

Question 148

Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?

Options:

A.

IP spoofing

B.

Password sniffing

C.

Data diddling

D.

Denial of service (DOS)

Question 149

Java is not:

Options:

A.

Object-oriented.

B.

Distributed.

C.

Architecture Specific.

D.

Multithreaded.

Question 150

The high availability of multiple all-inclusive, easy-to-use hacking tools that do NOT require much technical knowledge has brought a growth in the number of which type of attackers?

Options:

A.

Black hats

B.

White hats

C.

Script kiddies

D.

Phreakers

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Total 1074 questions