11.11 Special Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70special

iSQI CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Exam Practice Test

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Testing Engine

  • Product Type: Testing Engine
$36  $119.99

PDF Study Guide

  • Product Type: PDF Study Guide
$31.5  $104.99
Question 1

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

Question 2

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

Options:

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

Question 3

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

Question 4

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

Question 6

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

Question 7

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

Question 8

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

Question 9

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

Question 11

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Options:

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

Question 12

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

Question 13

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

Question 14

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

Question 15

Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

Options:

A.

Control flow testing

B.

Use case testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Decision table testing

Question 16

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

Question 17

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

Question 18

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

Question 19

Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

Question 21

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

Question 22

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

Question 23

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

Question 24

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

Question 25

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

Question 26

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 28

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

Question 29

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

Question 30

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures

Question 31

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

Question 32

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

Question 33

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

Question 34

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 35

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

Question 36

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

Question 37

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

Question 38

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Options:

A.

$28,000

B.

$1,500

C.

$33,501

D.

$5,000

Question 39

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Options:

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Question 40

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

Question 41

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

Question 42

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Question 43

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

Question 44

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 45

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Options:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

Question 46

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

Question 47

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Options:

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 48

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

Question 49

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

Question 50

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

Question 51

Component testing may include:

Options:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

Question 52

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

Question 53

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Question 54

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

Question 55

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Options:

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

Question 56

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

Question 57

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

Options:

A.

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

B.

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

C.

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

D.

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

Question 59

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Options:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

Question 60

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

Question 61

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Options:

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

Question 62

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

Question 63

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

Question 64

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Question 65

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

Question 66

Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

Options:

A.

The number of staff available to execute tests

B.

The level of detail in the test plan

C.

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

D.

The test estimation method used

Question 67

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

Question 68

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 69

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Question 70

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Options:

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

Question 71

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

Question 72

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i)X-Z-V-W

(ii)W-Y-U-U

Options:

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

Question 74

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Question 75

What type of testing is important after Migration, retirement or enhancement of an existing system?

Options:

A.

Regression testing

B.

Operational acceptance testing

C.

System Testing

D.

Maintenance testing

Question 76

Which of the following activities do NOT belong to test implementation and execution?

Options:

A.

Checking if the preconditions of test execution have been met

B.

Logging of test results

C.

Test data generation

D.

Prioritizing test conditions

Question 77

A bank offers a savings account with various interest rates based on the current balance in the account. The balance ranges and respective interest rates are:

Using two-point boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test Inputs provides the relatively highest level of boundary coverage?

Options:

A.

$5.00, S100.00. S499.99. $1,000,00. $1,000.01

B.

$100.00. S500.00. $1,000.00. $1,000.01

C.

$100.00, $100.01, $100.02, $500.00. $999 99

D.

$5,00, $100.00, $500.00, $1,000.01

Question 78

A tester thinks of a likely cause for a specific bug Should the tester make a comment about this in the bug report?

Options:

A.

No. A bug r^&ort must only include factual information, and not unsupported hypothesis

B.

No. Such addition may bias the developers' attitude when they attempt to fix the bug

C.

Yes It will reduce the risk that the bug fix will cause a regression

D.

Yes Observations that may help correct a bug should be included in the bug report

Question 79

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The test environment should correspond to the production environment

III. Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V. Testing is normally performed by testers

VI. Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Options:

A.

Component-V Integration - II System - IV Acceptance-VI

B.

Component -1 Integration - V System - II Acceptance - IV

C.

Component - IV Integration -1 System-VI Acceptance-V

D.

Component-VI Integration - IV System -1 Acceptance-III

Question 80

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

Options:

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

Question 81

Which of the following Is a possible reason for Introducing a defect In software code?

Options:

A.

Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing

B.

Improper system testing

C.

Improper unit testing

D.

Focus on static testing over dynamic testing

Question 82

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

Options:

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the contained in a small, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

Question 83

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

Question 84

You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters:

- There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria:

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8.

B.

There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter: age <= 0, and age > 25

C.

All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases.

D.

All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases.

Question 85

ISTQBw Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018. English) provided by iSOl GmbH, international Software Quality Institute Question 25 of 40 | Level: K3 | Number of correct answers: 1 I Credits: 1 Given the following stale model of sales order software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

PLACED --> CANCELLED ~> PLACED -> CANCELLED --> PLACED --> IN PRODUCTION --> CANCELLED

B.

PLACED --> IN PRODUCTION --> SHIPPED --> CANCELLED --> PLACED

C.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

D.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED --> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED --> PLACED

Question 86

An airline's frequent flyer's club awards benefits depending on which tier a customer is in. The software must determine which tier to allocate a customer to based on an input value of total Credits Earned to date

Customers initially join the Silver Tier and remain in that tier for the first 400 Credits Earned The next 400 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Gold Tier. The next 600 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Platinum Tier Further Credits Earned moves the customer into the Concierge Tier.

Test Cases have been written with the following total Credits Earned input values:

TC1 -400 Credits

TC2 - 500 Credits

TC3 - 800 Credits

TC4-1500 Credits

Applying the Equivalence Partitioning test design technique, what percentage of valid Equivalence Partitions have these 4 test cases collectively achieved?

Options:

A.

25%

B.

50%.

C.

75%.

D.

100%

Question 87

In which development life cycle model is regression testing an increasingly important activity as the project progresses?

Options:

A.

V-model.

B.

Waterfall.

C.

Scrum.

D.

Progressive.

Question 88

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a. Planning

b. Initiate review

c. Issue communication and analysis

d. Fixing and reporting

1. Creating defect reports

2. Estimating effort and timeframe

3. Recording updated status of defects

4. Selecting the people to participate

5. Distributing the work product and other material

6. Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

Options:

A.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

B.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d, 3-d, 6-d

Question 89

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

Question 90

Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures

B.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

C.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects

D.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

Question 91

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades. The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89. up to 100 – A

Above 79. up to 89 - B

Above 69. up to 79 – C

Above 59. up to 69 - D Below 60 - F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58, 59, 70, 80

B.

69, 79, 80, 89, 90

C.

74, 79, 84, 85, 89

D.

79,89,90,99,100

Question 92

Which of the following are part of ISTQB code of ethics?

I. Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest

II. Certified software tester shall always sign a NDA (Non Disclosure Agreement) in presence of customer data

III. Certified software testers shall maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment

IV Certified software testers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer, consistent with the public interest

Options:

A.

I, II, III

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, V

D.

I, III, IV

Question 93

Which of the following statements is the BEST example of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Tests based on the internal structure of a component or system

B.

Tests related to -what' the system should do

C.

Tests which calculate overtime pay for those employees entitled to such

D.

Tests which capture the time it takes to save a file

Question 94

Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software:

I) A test case passes

II) A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed

III) Some tests are deferred because test environment is not available

IV) A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case

Options:

A.

I, II and III

B.

I and IV

C.

I and II

D.

I, II and IV

Question 95

Which of the following tasks Is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

Options:

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

C.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

D.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

Question 96

Which of the following statements about Use Case Testing is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Use case generally has a mainstream scenario and may have many alternate or exceptional scenarios.

B.

A use case can be defined at the abstract level, detached from the implementation, or at the system level, describing a set of executed functions

C.

Use case testing does not find defects caused by interaction of different components

D.

Each use case has preconditions which need to be met for the use case to work successfully

Question 97

Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?

Options:

A.

Component test

B.

Feature test

C.

Functional test

D.

Subsystem test

Question 98

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

Options:

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

Question 99

Which of the following BEST describes a Test Case?

Options:

A.

A statement about “what to test” in terms of measurable coverage criteria from analysis of the test basis.

B.

A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and postconditions developed based on test conditions.

C.

A description of the test objectives to be achieved and the means and the schedule for achieving them.

D.

A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result of the system under test.

Question 100

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not have to be repeatable. because they are only used once

Options:

A.

II

B.

II. IV, V

C.

I.IV

D.

I, III, IV

Question 101

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyor belts, add raw materials to the flow, etc.)

Not all actions are possible at all times For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests. Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Branch Coverage

B.

Statement coverage

C.

Data flow coverage

D.

Code coverage

Question 102

A student needs to score at least 50 points to pass. If they score at least 100 points they will achieve a merit and if they score at least 150 points they will achieve a distinction.

Which two values are in the same partition?

Options:

A.

45 and 55.

B.

55 and 120.

C.

50 and 60.

D.

45 and 170.

Question 103

Which of the following statements are "testing general principles'"?

I. Exhaustive testing is impossible

II. The defects found during the pre-release tests, or the operational failures, are uniformly distributed across the system's software modules

III. Testing can show the presence of defects, but cannot demonstrate their absence

IV. Testing is context-independent

Options:

A.

I, III

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

II, III

Question 104

Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?

Options:

A.

Validation Is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

B.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

C.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification Is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

D.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

Question 105

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis fcr a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Cost of testing performed so far

B.

Number of unfixed defects

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Test schedules

Question 106

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Question 107

Which one of the following is an example of how product risk analysis can influence the testing approach?

Options:

A.

The complex business rules could result in costly failures, so decision table testing will be used for test case design.

B.

Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this area.

C.

There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled out.

D.

There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a contingency measure.

Question 108

You are testing a mobile app that displays a person's status in respect of Covid-19. There are five possibilities: Fully Vaccinated, Partly Vaccinated, Infected & Recovered. Last Tested Positive or Last Tested Negative. You have found that, after receiving data about successful administration of a second injection, the person's status has not changed from Partly Vaccinated to Fully Vaccinated, although it should have done. The project uses a popular proprietary defect management tool where you have drafted an incident report with the following information:

• Test id., test environment used and date/time of run

• Expected and actual results with steps to reproduce.

• Severity level 4 (Critical - an entire functional area is unusable)

• Version data for the application under test and the testware that was used

Which one of the following important items of information is missing?

Options:

A.

Recommendations

B.

Name of Tester

C.

Priority

D.

Change History

Question 109

Which of the following BEST describes a methodical approach to the Error Guessing test technique?

Options:

A.

A tester dynamically designs and executes tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

B.

An experienced tester makes a list of potential defects and failures, and designs and runs tests to generate these failures should the defects be present in the code.

C.

A tester designs, implements and executes tests to cover test conditions found in checklists that are based on what is important for the user.

D.

An inexperienced tester is asked to attempt to guess errors that may have been missed by experienced testers during formal test design.