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ISTQB CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Practice Test

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Options:

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 2

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Options:

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

Question 3

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

Question 4

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

Question 5

Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

Options:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

Question 6

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

Question 7

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

Options:

A.

To be based on specifications

B.

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

C.

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

D.

To include both functional and non-functional testing

Question 8

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Question 9

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Options:

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

Question 10

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Question 11

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

Question 12

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

Question 13

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

Question 14

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

Question 15

Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Independence from the production process

B.

A belief that programmers always make mistakes

C.

Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program

D.

Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Question 16

Which of the following is a role of a formal review?[K1]

Options:

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

Question 17

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

Question 18

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Options:

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

Question 19

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Question 20

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

Options:

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Question 21

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i)X-Z-V-W

(ii)W-Y-U-U

Options:

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

Question 23

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

Question 24

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B.

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

C.

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

D.

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

Question 25

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Question 26

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

Question 27

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

Question 28

A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:

Fail: 0–39 inclusive

Pass: 40–59 inclusive

Merit: 60–79 inclusive

Distinction: 80–100 inclusive

In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

Options:

A.

25, 40, 60, 75

B.

0, 45, 79, 87

C.

35, 40, 59, 69

D.

25, 39, 60, 81

Question 29

The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.

i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.

ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.

iii. Designing the test environment set-up.

iv. Developing and prioritizing test cases.

v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.

Which statement below is TRUE?

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

B.

(i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

C.

(i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.

D.

(i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

Question 30

Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Options:

A.

It does not require familiarity with the code.

B.

It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.

C.

It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.

D.

Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

Question 31

Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

Options:

A.

Determine whether enough component testing was executed.

B.

Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.

C.

Prove that all faults are identified.

D.

Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.

Question 32

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Options:

A.

an error

B.

a fault

C.

a failure

D.

a defect

Question 33

What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites ..?

Options:

A.

Interaction between html pages

B.

Performance on the client side

C.

Security aspects

D.

All of the above

Question 34

What is the main purpose of use case testing?

Options:

A.

To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.

B.

To identify defects in the connections between components.

C.

To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.

D.

To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.

Question 35

Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?

Options:

A.

Underestimating the demand for a tool.

B.

The purchase price of the tool.

C.

No agreed requirements for the tool.

D.

The cost of resources to implement and maintain the tool.

Question 36

Which of the following is most likely to be a benefit of using static techniques?

Options:

A.

Fewer performance defects.

B.

Productivity improvements in the development process.

C.

More efficient regression testing.

D.

Quick return on investment in static analysis tools.

Question 37

A software component has the code shown below:

Program BiggestA,

Biggest: Integer

Begin

Read A

Biggest = 10

While A > 0

Do

If A > Biggest

Then Biggest = A

Endif

Read A

Enddo

End

The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage. Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?

Options:

A.

0

B.

10, 0

C.

10, 5, 0

D.

10, 11, 0

Question 38

What is important to do when working with software development models?

Options:

A.

To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.

B.

To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.

C.

To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.

D.

To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

Question 39

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Options:

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

Question 40

Which is not the testing objective?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

C.

Preventing defects.

D.

Debugging defects

Question 41

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

Options:

A.

When the code is complete.

B.

When the design is complete.

C.

When the software requirements have been approved.

D.

When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Question 42

Boundary value testing:

Options:

A.

Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

B.

Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

C.

Tests combinations of input circumstances

D.

Is used in white box testing strategy

Question 43

Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?

Options:

A.

Creating test suites from the test cases

B.

Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

C.

Comparing actual results

D.

Designing the Tests

Question 44

Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

Options:

A.

Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.

B.

Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware.

C.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

D.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

Question 45

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

Options:

A.

Informal review.

B.

Management review.

C.

Inspection.

D.

Walkthrough

E.

Technical Review

Question 46

The selection of test cases for regression testing..?

Options:

A.

Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system

B.

Includes the area of frequent defects

C.

Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes

D.

All of the above

Question 47

One of the roles in a review is that of moderator, which of the following best describes this role?

Options:

A.

Plans the review, runs the review meeting and ensures that follow-up activities are completed.

B.

Allocates time in the plan, decides which reviews will take place and that the benefits are delivered.

C.

Writes the document to be reviewed, agrees that the document can be reviewed, and updates the document with any changes.

D.

Documents all issues raised in the review meeting, records problems and open points.

Question 48

Which of the following are examples of iterative development models?

(i) V-model

(ii) Rapid Application Development model

(iii) Waterfall model

(iv) Agile development model

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

Question 49

Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication

ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. Early test design can find faults

iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements

v. Early test design takes more effort

Options:

A.

i, iii & iv are true. ii & v are false

B.

iii is true, i, ii, iv & v are false

C.

iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

D.

i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

E.

i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

Question 50

Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.

ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.

iii) Assigning resources.

iv) Building the test environment.

v) Writing test conditions.

Options:

A.

i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.

B.

ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.

C.

iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.

D.

i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Question 51

What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Options:

A.

Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

B.

Use automation tool for testing

C.

Both a and b

D.

None of the above

Question 52

Which of the following are static techniques?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough.

B.

State transition testing.

C.

Decision table testing.

D.

Statement testing.

Question 53

Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions

B.

To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126

C.

To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions

D.

To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

Question 54

Failure is _________

Options:

A.

Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program

B.

Bug found before product Release

C.

Bug found after product Release

D.

Bug found during Design phase

Question 55

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

Question 56

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

Question 57

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

Question 58

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Question 59

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

Options:

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

Question 60

The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.

What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?

* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart

* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

Options:

A.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

B.

TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

C.

TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed

D.

TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Question 61

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Question 63

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Question 64

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Question 65

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

Question 66

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

Question 67

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

Options:

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

Question 68

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

Question 69

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Options:

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

Question 70

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

Question 71

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Question 72

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

Options:

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

Question 73

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

Question 74

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Question 75

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

Question 76

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

Question 77

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

Question 78

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Question 79

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

Question 80

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 81

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule