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NABP FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Exam Practice Test

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Total 426 questions

Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

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Question 1

All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

It may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.

B.

It may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.

C.

It may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

D.

large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.

E.

Lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.

F.

Pharmaceutical Sciences

Question 2

Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?

Options:

A.

Vitamin D

B.

Vitamin D3

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin K

E.

Vitamin B12

Question 3

Which of the following is the only disaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

Options:

A.

Lactose

B.

Maltase

C.

Fructose

D.

Glucose

E.

Cellulose

Question 4

Correct statements regarding mutation may include:

I- Cell division

II- Change in genotype

III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 5

All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

There is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.

B.

The liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.

C.

The solute usually forms an amorphous glass.

D.

The eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.

E.

Water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.

Question 6

Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:

I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues

II- It is absorbed from the small intestine

III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 7

Which is responsible for N in vivo?

Options:

A.

Argenine

B.

Tryptophan

C.

Guanine

D.

Thiamine

E.

Leucine

Question 8

Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures specifically because of their:

Options:

A.

Sizes and shapes

B.

Tautomeric activities

C.

Enzymatic activities

D.

Electron-donating effects

E.

Electron-withdrawing effects

Question 9

Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Adenine

C.

Uracil

D.

Cytosine

E.

Guanine

Question 10

Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined:

Options:

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

DNA gyrase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

RNA transferase

E.

None of the above

Question 11

Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called:

Options:

A.

Oxidoreductase enzymes

B.

Transferase enzymes

C.

Hydrolyses enzymes

D.

Isomerasis enzymes

E.

Lyasis enzymes

Question 12

Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element?

Options:

A.

Sodium

B.

Magnesium

C.

Potassium

D.

Calcium

E.

Phosphorous

Question 13

Carotene is the precursor of:

Options:

A.

retinol

B.

thiamine

C.

calciferol

D.

riboflavin

E.

retinoic acid

Question 14

The presence of mitochondria in the living cell can be detected by:

Options:

A.

Neutral reagent

B.

Jenus green

C.

Morquis reagent

D.

Methylene blue

E.

Phenolphthalein

Question 15

Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of:

Options:

A.

Acetylcholine in the motor cortex.

B.

Noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.

C.

Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA. in inhibitory pathways.

D.

Dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.

E.

Serotonin in the brain stem.

Question 16

Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:

Options:

A.

30s ribosomal subunit only

B.

50s ribosomal subunit only

C.

70s ribosomal subunit only

D.

30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits

E.

30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

Question 17

Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Aspirin

B.

β-Blockers

C.

Ipratropium

D.

NSAIDs

E.

Cholinergic drugs

Question 18

Agents considered as precursor of leukotriene include:

Options:

A.

Tyrosine

B.

Cyanide

C.

Arachidonic acid

D.

Prostaglandins

E.

Histamine

Question 19

Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Options:

A.

Warfarin

B.

Cotrimoxazole

C.

Amoxicillin

D.

Phenobarbital

E.

Lamotrigine

Question 20

Uricosuric agents are used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid re-absorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of

a uricosuric agent is:

Options:

A.

Allopurinol

B.

sulphinpyrazone

C.

Indomethacin

D.

Penicillamine

E.

Methotrexate

Question 21

The ethical principle of veracity requires that:

Options:

A.

we respect the rights of others to make choices.

B.

we act with honesty, without deception.

C.

we avoid, remove or prevent harm.

D.

we do good to patients.

E.

we act with fairness.

Question 22

Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by:

Options:

A.

Loss of joint movements

B.

Loss of bone mass

C.

Imbalance of uric acid

D.

Hormonal imbalance

E.

All are correct

Question 23

Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is:

Options:

A.

4.0 h.

B.

5.0 h.

C.

5.4 h.

D.

5.8 h.

E.

6.0 h.

Question 24

All are examples of drugs used in the treatment of bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

β2-agonists

B.

Anticholinergic

C.

Methyl xanthenes

D.

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

E.

Leukotriene modifiers

Question 25

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is:

Options:

A.

10%.

B.

15%.

C.

25%.

D.

40%.

E.

50%.

Question 26

Which is not a drug used for smoke cessation?

Options:

A.

Nicotine polacrilex

B.

Transdermal nicotine patches

C.

Nicotine sublingual tablets

D.

Bupropion

E.

Buspirone

Question 27

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

Options:

A.

15.

B.

20.

C.

150.

D.

200.

E.

2000.

Question 28

The number of milli-alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is:

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

24

D.

32

E.

48

Question 29

Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoke?

Options:

A.

Vitamin C

B.

Vitamin B

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin D

E.

Vitamin A

Question 30

The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Combining with acetylcholine

B.

Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase

C.

Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase

D.

Reacting at the cholinergic receptor

E.

Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

Question 31

Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:

Options:

A.

prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body

B.

post-antimicrobial effect

C.

enhanced tissue accumulation

D.

reduced renal clearance

E.

higher peak-trough differences

Question 32

Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity:

Options:

A.

oxazepam

B.

nitrazepam

C.

diazepam

D.

triazolam

E.

clonazepam

Question 33

Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

Options:

A.

beta-2 agonist

B.

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Stimulates lipoprotein lipase

Question 34

Class of famciclovir is:

Options:

A.

NSAID

B.

Antidepressants

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Antivirals

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

Question 35

For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?

Options:

A.

Excretion rate

B.

Metabolism rate

C.

Absorption rate

D.

Distribution rate

E.

All of the above

Question 36

Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.

Options:

A.

Proximal convoluted tubule

B.

Loop of Henle

C.

Collecting duct

D.

Distal convoluted tubule

Question 37

Class of buspirone is:

Options:

A.

Anticonvulsants

B.

Lipid lowering drugs

C.

Beta blockers

D.

Benzodiazepines

E.

Sedatives

Question 38

Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?

Options:

A.

Tricyclic.

B.

Cytosine monophosphate analog

C.

Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.

D.

Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.

E.

Metabolized in liver by P450.

Question 39

Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?

Options:

A.

Cytochrome P450

B.

Alcohol Dehydrogenase

C.

Glucuronyl Transferase

D.

Sulfotransferase

E.

All of the above

Question 40

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

Options:

A.

Digitalis

B.

Niacin

C.

Tetracycline

D.

Fluoroquinolones

Question 41

Indication of Norvir is:

Options:

A.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

B.

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

C.

Diarrhea

D.

Influenza A

E.

HIV

Question 42

Half-life of adenosine is:

Options:

A.

70 days

B.

7-20 hours

C.

4 hours

D.

2 hours

E.

1-2 minutes

Question 43

Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

Options:

A.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

C.

Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Question 44

Half-life of streptomycin is:

Options:

A.

10-50 hours

B.

8 hours

C.

1 hour

D.

16 hours

E.

3-4 hours

Question 45

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

Question 46

Class of reserpine is:

Options:

A.

Anticoagulants

B.

Methylxanthines

C.

Inotropic agents

D.

Antiarrhythmic agents

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

Question 47

Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.

Options:

A.

30 L/hr/70 Kg

B.

60 L/hr/70 Kg

C.

120 L/hr/70 Kg

D.

250 L/hr/70 Kg

Question 48

Effect of cascara is:

Options:

A.

Decreases water absorption

B.

Stimulates segmentation

C.

Decreases meal-stimulated gastric acid secretion

D.

May increase triglycerides

E.

Afterload increase

Question 49

Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

Options:

A.

Atovaquone only

B.

Chloroquine and primaquine

C.

Quinine and doxacycline

D.

Mefloquine

E.

C and D are correct

Question 50

Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include:

Options:

A.

Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections

B.

Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins

C.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms

D.

Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect

E.

Very safe for children

Question 51

Mechanism of action of PAS is:

Options:

A.

Activates antithrombin III

B.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

D.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

beta-1 antagonist

Question 52

Which of the following statements refers to atenolol?

Options:

A.

No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

B.

Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from myocardial infarction.

C.

Is more likely to cause edema than verapamil

D.

Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals.

E.

Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism.

Question 53

Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment?

Options:

A.

Cardiac dysfunction

B.

Mental dysfunction

C.

Hepatitis

D.

Renal complications

E.

Discoloration of skin

Question 54

Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

Options:

A.

Quinine

B.

Pyrimethamine

C.

Sulfadoxine

D.

Primaquine

E.

Quinidine

Question 55

Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

Options:

A.

PABA

B.

Folic acid

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Cyanide

E.

Nalidixic acid

Question 56

Side effect of OKT-3 is:

Options:

A.

Myalgia

B.

Restlessness

C.

Cognitive dulling

D.

Dyspnea

E.

Cough

Question 57

Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include:

I- Lots of fluids

II- Ciprofloxacin

III- Metronidazole

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

Question 58

Interactions with other drugs of Demerol is:

Options:

A.

Rifampin: stimulates metabolism

B.

Iron: decreases absorption

C.

Amiodarone: inhibits activation

D.

Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism

E.

Desipramine: enhances analgesia

Question 59

Mechanism of action of carbenicillin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits transpeptidase

B.

Blocks Na channels

C.

Activates heparin cofactor II which inhibits thrombin (at high concentrations)

D.

Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

E.

GM-CSF

Question 60

All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Niclosamide

B.

Prazinquatel

C.

Mebendazole

D.

Dapsone

E.

Thiabendazole

Question 61

Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by:

Options:

A.

Ciprofloxacin eardrop

B.

Gentamicin eardrop

C.

Prednisone eardrop

D.

Levobunolol eardrop

E.

Saline solution

Question 62

First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include:

Options:

A.

Sulfametoxazole + Trimetoprim

B.

Amoxicillin clavulanate

C.

Penicillin procaine

D.

Erythromycin

E.

All are very effective in treating UTI

Question 63

Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include:

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Total 426 questions