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Nokia 4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Exam Practice Test

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Total 352 questions

Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Network (VPN) technologies? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

VPWS

C.

VPRN

D.

ISP

E.

VPLS

Question 2

In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 2002?

Options:

A.

IGP

B.

IBGP

C.

EBGP

D.

EGP

E.

BGP cannot be run between routers in the same AS.

Question 3

If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service .

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

Question 4

Which of the following is a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

Options:

A.

Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network

B.

Size of frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C.

Provides error checking of the frame contents on ingress.

D.

All of the above.

Question 5

What operation is performed by an LSR when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

Options:

A.

The LSR refers to its routing table and forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER without altering the MPLS label.

B.

The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, swaps the label and forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER.

C.

The LSR refers to its MPLS label table forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER without altering the MPLS label.

D.

The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, pops the label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

Question 6

Which bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

Options:

A.

A string of consecutive 1's.

B.

A string of consecutive 0's.

C.

A string of alternating 10's.

D.

The network address is determined by masking the source address with a port's if Index binary representation.

Question 7

How does the Transport Layer identify which application is to receive the data?

Options:

A.

Using the IP address of the packet.

B.

Using the MAC address of the frame.

C.

Using port numbers.

D.

Using Connection Identifier Numbers (CIN).

Question 8

How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

Options:

A.

LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

B.

LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C.

LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D.

LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

Question 9

Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?

Options:

A.

Responds in real time to network failures.

B.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.

Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

Question 10

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

Options:

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 11

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic routing protocols or static routes are configured.

B.

A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the routing table.

C.

An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with the most physical bandwidth)

D.

An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the destination.

Question 12

Which field in the Routing Information Base (RIB) determines the direction frames will egress the node?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Dest prefix

D.

Next-hop

E.

Cost

Question 13

What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?

Options:

A.

These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.

B.

These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.

C.

TCP does not use source or destination ports.

D.

These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP connection.

Question 14

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP stack?

Options:

A.

Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers.

B.

Provides a data transport service for routing and control protocols such as OSPF and ICMP.

C.

Provides a universal address plan to uniquely identify every device in the network.

D.

Defines a standard method for framing data for transmission on the physical network medium.

Question 15

If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

Question 16

Which of the following applications would be likely to use UDP?

Options:

A.

Real-time audio application, such as VoIP

B.

Web browser

C.

Email application

D.

Telnet

Question 17

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1?

Options:

A.

next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

next-hop 192.168.2.1

C.

next-hop 10.2 3.1

D.

next-hop 192.168.2.0

Question 18

What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

Options:

A.

It restricts the sender from sending too much data when there is congestion in the network.

B.

It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data.

C.

It forces the sender to send only one segment at a time.

D.

It allows the receiver to drop segments without the sender having to retransmit.

Question 19

What is the purpose of the broadcast IP address?

Options:

A.

To provide an address that refers to all the IP devices in a given subnetwork.

B.

To provide an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a network.

C.

To provide an address that refers to a group of devices having the same IP address in different Layer 2

domains.

D.

To provide an address that refers to a single device on a given subnetwork.

Question 20

Which of the following statements about VPWS service on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

VPWS is a simple point-to-point service.

B.

VPWS emulates a Layer 2 connection between two customers.

C.

VPWS does not perform MAC learning.

D.

VPWS encapsulates Layer 2 frames into IP datagrams.

Question 21

Which organization co-ordinates global public IP addresses?

Options:

A.

IANA

B.

IETF

C.

RIR

D.

IEEE

Question 22

Which of the following statements about the IP forwarding process is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It uses the forwarding table to find a match for the source IP address.

B.

It uses the ARP table to find a match for the source MAC address.

C.

It uses the ARP table to find a match for the destination MAC address.

D.

It uses the forwarding table to find a match for the destination IP address.

Question 23

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button). Router 1 installs network D in its routing table following a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1

B.

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

C.

172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10 10 3

D.

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 172.16.9.1

Question 24

Which Ethernet frame field allows the transmitter and receiver to synchronize communications?

Options:

A.

Preamble

B.

Start Frame Delimiter

C.

Length/Type

D.

Frame Check Sequence

Question 25

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding IP-filters? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IP-filters may be applied on interface ingress, egress, or both.

B.

Multiple IP-filters can be applied in each direction.

C.

An IP-filter may only be applied to a single interface if the scope is set to template.

D.

An IP-filter may have multiple match criteria per entry.

E.

The default-action of an IP-filter is always drop.

Question 26

Which of the following statements about IP addressing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

IP addresses are assigned by IEEE to vendors.

B.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on a variable length subnet mask.

C.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on fixed subnet masks of /24, /16, and /8.

D.

IP addresses provide hierarchy based on the country code and regional identifier.

Question 27

Which of the following statements about router R1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R1 is an iLER for both LSPs.

B.

Router R1 is an eLER for both LSPs.

C.

Router R1 is an iLER for LSP A and an eLER for LSP B.

D.

Router R1 is an iLER for LSP B and an eLER for LSP A.

Question 28

Which of the following is part of the IP forwarding process?

Options:

A.

The router does a longest prefix match lookup.

B.

The router checks the source address in the MAC FDB.

C.

The router assigns a cost to each of its interfaces.

D.

The router advertises routes to its neighbors.

Question 29

Which of the following does a link-state protocol use when choosing the best path to a destination network?

Options:

A.

Cost

B.

Round-trip time

C.

Hop-count

D.

Route preference

Question 30

Given network address 200.12.30.0 with network mask 255.255.255.0, which subnet mask can be used to create 12 subnetworks? Each subnetwork must support 10 host addresses.

Options:

A.

/25

B.

/26

C.

/28

D.

/30

Question 31

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding SONET/SDH? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are deployed over point-to-point physical topologies to allow sub-50ms convergence.

B.

An ADM (Add Drop Multiplexer) is used to connect various sites to the infrastructure.

C.

IP datagrams are encapsulated in a PPP frame for transmission over an SDH network,

D.

IP datagrams are encapsulated in an Ethernet frame for transmission over a SONET network.

Question 32

Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

C.

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.

Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

Question 33

Which of the following statements best characterize Link State Routing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Question 34

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Options:

A.

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

B.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

Question 35

When forwarding a packet, which field in the following table determines the egress interface?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Next-hop

D.

Cost

Question 36

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

136.160.17.192/29

136.160.17.200/29

136.160.17.208/29

136.160.17.216/29

Options:

A.

136.160.17.128/25

B.

136.160.17.192/26

C.

136.160.17.192/27

D.

136.160.17.192/28

Question 37

Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.

B.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services

C.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.

D.

The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML.

Question 38

What characteristic of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?

Options:

A.

All hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers.

B.

IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides.

C.

Clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses.

D.

Router, switch and host addresses are drawn from unique address classes.

Question 39

One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to:

Options:

A.

Specify authorization information to control access to the router.

B.

Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.

C.

Initialize the hardware.

D.

Set the date/time for the system.

Question 40

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Question 41

Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

Options:

A.

The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2 data.

B.

The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.

C.

The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network.

D.

The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.

Question 42

A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:

Options:

A.

IP routing.

B.

IP protocol.

C.

IP encapsulation.

D.

IP tunneling.

Question 43

You are configuring your Nokia 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly?

Options:

A.

Ctrl-z

B.

Ctrl-c

C.

Esc

D.

Shift-Page Down

Question 44

What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP datagram sourced from that host cannot be delivered?

Options:

A.

Echo Request.

B.

Destination Unreachable.

C.

Router redirect.

D.

Echo Reply.

Question 45

If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

Options:

A.

If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF.

B.

If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2.

C.

The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'.

D.

The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

Question 46

Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

Options:

A.

The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of TCP/IP in 1983.

B.

The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.

C.

The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.

D.

Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks.

Question 47

What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

Question 48

Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

Question 49

How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 50

Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) on the Nokia 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?

Options:

A.

Graphic User Interface (GUI).

B.

Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI).

C.

Command Line Interface (CLI).

D.

All of the above.

Question 51

Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

Options:

A.

Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.

B.

Provides a mechanism for flow control.

C.

Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.

D.

Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

Question 52

Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?

Options:

A.

Application data is transported in 53-byte cells.

B.

ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value.

C.

Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service.

D.

Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line.

E.

All of the above.

F.

None of the above

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Total 352 questions