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Paloalto Networks PCCET Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician Exam Practice Test

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Total 158 questions

Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician Questions and Answers

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Question 1

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

Options:

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

Question 2

On which security principle does virtualization have positive effects?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

non-repudiation

Question 3

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question 4

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

Question 5

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

Question 6

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

Question 7

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

Question 8

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

Question 9

Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

AutoFocus

D.

App-ID

Question 10

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

Question 11

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

Question 12

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

Question 13

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

Options:

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 14

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Question 15

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Question 16

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

Question 17

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

Options:

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

Question 18

Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

Options:

A.

Event Viewer

B.

Timeline inspector

C.

Task Manager

D.

Task Scheduler

Question 19

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

Options:

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

Question 20

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

Question 21

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

Options:

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 22

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

Question 23

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Manual reconfiguration

B.

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.

Single point of failure

D.

Less security

Question 24

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

Options:

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

Question 25

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

Options:

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

Question 26

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

Options:

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

Question 27

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

Question 28

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

Options:

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

Question 29

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

Question 30

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

Question 31

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the software

delivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

Question 32

SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

People

B.

Accessibility

C.

Processes

D.

Understanding

E.

Business

Question 33

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Options:

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

Question 34

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

Options:

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

Question 35

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

Question 36

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

Options:

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

Question 37

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

Question 38

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

Question 39

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

Options:

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

Question 40

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

Question 41

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

Options:

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

Question 42

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

Question 43

What is the purpose of SIEM?

Options:

A.

Securing cloud-based applications

B.

Automating the security team’s incident response

C.

Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events

D.

Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access

Question 44

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

Options:

Question 45

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

Question 46

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

Question 47

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

Page: 1 / 16
Total 158 questions