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Scaled Agile SAFe-SPC SAFe Practice Consultant SPC (6.0) Exam Practice Test

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Total 119 questions

SAFe Practice Consultant SPC (6.0) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

When is the Solution Demo conducted?

Options:

A.

On demand.

B.

At the end of each Sprint.

C.

At the end of each PI.

D.

Mid-PI.

Question 2

You are at a retrospective meeting where a program is trying to address a long-existing problem: unreliable PI commitments. One of the participants suggests that they are working on too many things at a time.

What aspect of the program cause uncontrollable amounts of work in process?

Options:

A.

Teams don't do a good job of task-switching.

B.

All program teams are cross-functional, and therefore every team spawns work in multiple areas at the same time.

C.

Backlog items in the Program Backlog are not truly end-to-end Features; they look more like large chunks of work at different layers of the system

Question 3

What would imply a change to the ART Budget?

Options:

A.

Extending the duration of a PI.

B.

Changing total ART resources

C.

Switching to a different PI cadence.

D.

Reducing the scope of a Program Epic.

E.

Prioritizing Features based on Cost of Delay.

Question 4

What statement applies to Iteration Planning in SAFe?

Options:

A.

Iteration Planning is required in every Iteration to enable fast learning cycles.

B.

Teams that have no dependencies may choose not to do Iteration Planning once they have planned the PI.

C.

Component teams require Iteration Planning in every Iteration, while Feature teams may or may not, based on dependencies.

D.

Iteration Planning is required for all Iterations except for the first one, since there's nothing to cause a change in the PI plan yet.

E.

When the teams define acceptance criteria during PI Planning, Iteration Planning is not strictly required during the PI.

Question 5

What responsibilities are associated with the System Team?

Options:

A.

Defining Solution architecture.

B.

Creating new automated test scenarios.

C.

End-to-end system testing.

D.

Building and maintaining a production-equivalent staging environment.

E.

Deploying to staging.

Question 6

What is NOT a SAFe-recommended practice for DevOps?

Options:

A.

Maintain development and test environments to better match production.

B.

Deploy to staging every sprint.

C.

Put everything under version control.

D.

Start automating the actual deployment process.

E.

Build and maintain a production-equivalent staging environment.

F.

Continuously synchronize all Feature and team branches.

G.

Create the ability to automatically build environments.

Question 7

(Select 3) According to Lean thinking, how is fast and sustainable flow achieved?

Options:

A.

By understanding the full Value Stream.

B.

By constant reduction of delays.

C.

By reducing batch sizes.

D.

By applying subjective governance.

Question 8

In SAFe, who owns the Vision for a PI?

Options:

A.

Product Owner

B.

Business Owners

C.

Scrum Master

D.

COE

E.

Product Management

Question 9

What activity occurs during the program Inspect and Adapt workshop?

Options:

A.

PI Predictability Measure update.

B.

Roadmap update

C.

Team Iteration Demo

D.

Biweekly System Demo

E.

Iteration Metrics update

Question 10

Vikas is a new Solution architect and is trying to understand the Solution Context. What is the most important factor for him to consider?

Options:

A.

The acceptance Criteria for the Capabilities.

B.

Job sequencing for the Epics in the Value Stream Backlog.

C.

The Economic Framework for the Value Stream.

D.

The environment in which the Solution is deployed.

Question 11

What is the key reason for deploying each team increment to the production-equivalent staging environment?

Options:

A.

Teams can verify whether new functionality or Nonfunctional Requirements are compatible with the current production configuration.

B.

It allows the System Team to test the deployability of the Solution.

C.

It enable SAFe teams to Develop on Cadence and Release Any Time.

D.

If something goes wrong with the production environment, teams can switch their staging to perform the role of production.

Question 12

Once an Epic is approved, an Epic Owner tracks the Epic through implementation.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 13

What are stretch objectives?

Options:

A.

Objectives that are beyond the capacity of the team and so are uncommitted for the PI.

B.

Objectives that are part of the team's capacity but not necessarily achievable during the PI.

C.

Objectives that are identified during the PI.

D.

Objectives that the business has promised to their Customers.

Question 14

What is the target percentage for the Program Predictability Measure?

Options:

A.

<50%

B.

50-75%

C.

80-100%

D.

100%

E.

None of the above.

Question 15

A Feature inherits its WSJF rank from its parent.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 16

What is true about Epic implementation?

Options:

A.

Once pulled into implementation, the Epic needs to be finished.

B.

A budget reserve is established that can be used to fund Epics.

C.

Agile Release Trains are empowered to decide whether or not they proceed with a Portfolio Epic.

D.

Re-prioritization happens at every PI boundary, and the rest of the Epic can be postponed or canceled if there are more important new initiatives.

Question 17

Developing a framework for decision-making is tool for taking an economic view.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 18

In SAFe, Dunbar's number provides guidance for:

Options:

A.

The number of members on a self-managing, self-organizing ART.

B.

The maximum number of tasks in a Program Increment for optimal predictability.

C.

The number of Stories created during PI Planning to enable commitment.

D.

The percent utilization that enables a sustainable pace.

Question 19

What is the primary purpose of the management meeting at the end of Day 1 of PI Planning?

Options:

A.

To assign business value to the teams' draft PI Objectives.

B.

To make adjustments to the PI scope and address program challenges.

C.

To design the next generation of the product.

D.

To evaluate the performance of teams.

Question 20

What is the primary role of a Scrum Master?

Options:

A.

To write all the user stories so that the team can focus on coding and testing.

B.

To task team members in the efficient manner possible based on their skills.

C.

To provide management with status reports on the team's progress.

D.

To use servant leadership to help the team perform at its best.

Question 21

What activity calls for using ROAM technique?

Options:

A.

Refining the Program Backlog.

B.

Managing the ART sync.

C.

Categorizing program risks during PI Planning.

D.

Managing teams by the Release Train Engineer.

Question 22

What is NOT a good Definition of Done (DoD)?

Options:

A.

The Customer is satisfied with the User Experience.

B.

Nonfunctional Requirements are met.

C.

Code is checked in and merged into main branch.

D.

No must-fix defects exist.

E.

All unit tests are passing.

F.

Coding standards have been followed.

Question 23

What role would a traditional program manager most likely take on in SAFe?

Options:

A.

Release Train Engineer or Value Stream Engineer.

B.

Scrum master

C.

Business Owner

D.

Product Manager

Question 24

(Select 4) Lean-Agile Leaders ______________.

Options:

A.

Lead the teams

B.

Proactively eliminate impediments.

C.

Run successful Agile Release Trains.

D.

Facilitate relentless improvement

E.

Embrace the values of Lean.

F.

Manage the most critical day-to-day activities of team members.

Question 25

Test automation is typically included in the Definition of Done (DoD).

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 26

(Select 2) What are the right scenarios for using SAFe Foundations Training Materials?

Options:

A.

Train Scrum Masters in servant leadership following "SAFe for Teams" training.

B.

Make an initial presentation on SAFe to the organization.

C.

Familiarize Release Train Engineers with the PI Planning process.

D.

Familiarize executives with SAFe.

E.

Train the teams prior to PI Planning.

Question 27

An Iteration is a specific type of Plan-Do-Check-Adjust learning cycle.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 28

(Select 2) What applies to the Portfolio Backlog?

Options:

A.

The Portfolio Kanban holds Capabilities that are ready for implementation.

B.

Programs plan PIs so that they exhaust the Portfolio Backlog and only then work on their local priorities.

C.

It provides a low-cost holding area for approved Business and Enabler Epics.

D.

WSJF is used to prioritize Epics in the Portfolio Backlog.

Question 29

Velocity is a good measure of team performance.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 30

(select 2) What are the benefits of cadence and synchronization?

Options:

A.

Synchronization enables multiple perspectives to be understood, resolved, and integrated at the same time.

B.

They enable systems builders to operate reliably and with certainty within a safety buffer.

C.

Synchronization enables reduction in WIP.

D.

Cadence limits variance.

E.

Cadence enables variability and makes wait times predictable.

Question 31

(Select 2) Why is Architectural Runway important?

Options:

A.

It supports a stable velocity.

B.

It provides the documentation on which Features and Capabilities are built.

C.

It iteratively evolves the architecture to meet changing needs.

D.

It allows for nontechnical changes

Question 32

Who typically facilitates the ART Sync meeting?

Options:

A.

Agile coach

B.

Senior Scrum Master

C.

Development manager or QA manager

D.

Release Train Engineer

E.

Value Stream Engineer

Question 33

A Scrum Master asked you to help her use systems thinking to identify the backlog items that would improve the system as a whole. Select one item that uses systems thinking most effectively.

Options:

A.

Involve representatives of department teams in Iteration Planning and Demos.

B.

Make daily stand-ups more engaging and strictly timeboxed.

C.

Review the burn-down chart at each retrospective to improve team estimating.

D.

Increase unit test coverage.

Question 34

ARTs that consist only of Feature teams do not require an Architectural Runway.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 35

(Select 3) Who is typically involved in the ART Sync?

Options:

A.

Scrum Masters

B.

Product Owners

C.

Business Owners

D.

Release Train Engineer

E.

Release Management

F.

Solution Management

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Total 119 questions