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Shared Assessments CTPRP Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Exam Practice Test

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Total 125 questions

Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Questions and Answers

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Question 1

You are assessing your organization's Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (BR/BCP) requirements based on the shift to remote work. Which statement is LEAST reflective of current practices in business resiliency?

Options:

A.

Third party service providers should be included in the company’s exercise and testing program based on the criticality of the outsourced business function

B.

The right to require participation in testing with third party service providers should be included in the contract

C.

The contract is the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP since both programs were triggered by the pandemic

D.

Management should request and receive artifacts that Gemonstrate successful test results and any remediation action plans

Question 2

Which statement is FALSE regarding the foundational requirements of a well-defined third party risk management program?

Options:

A.

We conduct onsite or virtual assessments for all third parties

B.

We have defined senior and executive management accountabilities for oversight of our TPRM program

C.

We have established vendor risk ratings and classifications based on a tiered hierarchy

D.

We have established Management and Board-level reporting to enable risk-based decisionmaking

Question 3

When working with third parties, which of the following requirements does not reflect a “Zero Trust" approach to access management?

Options:

A.

Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network

B.

Ensure that access is granted on a per session basis regardless of network location, user, or device

C.

Implement device monitoring, continual inspection and monitoring of logs/traffic

D.

Require that all communication is secured regardless of network location

Question 4

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the accountabilities in a three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

The second line of defense is management within the business unit

B.

The first line of defense is the risk or compliance team that provides an oversight or governance function

C.

The third line of defense is an assurance function that has independence from the business unit

D.

The third line of defense must be limited to an external assessment firm

Question 5

Which type of contract termination is MOST likely to occur after failure to remediate assessment findings?

Options:

A.

Regulatory/supervisory termination

B.

Termination for convenience

C.

Normal termination

D.

Termination for cause

Question 6

An IT change management approval process includes all of the following components EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Application version control standards for software release updates

B.

Documented audit trail for all emergency changes

C.

Defined roles between business and IT functions

D.

Guidelines that restrict approval of changes to only authorized personnel

Question 7

If a system requires ALL of the following for accessing its data: (1) a password, (2) a

security token, and (3) a user's fingerprint, the system employs:

Options:

A.

Biometric authentication

B.

Challenge/Response authentication

C.

One-Time Password (OTP) authentication

D.

Multi-factor authentication

Question 8

Select the risk type that is defined as: “A third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes”.

Options:

A.

Reliability risk

B.

Performance risk

C.

Competency risk

D.

Availability risk

Question 9

For services with system-to-system access, which change management requirement

MOST effectively reduces the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer?

Options:

A.

Approval of the change by the information security department

B.

Documenting sufficient time for quality assurance testing

C.

Communicating the change to customers prior ta deployment to enable external acceptance testing

D.

Documenting and legging change approvals

Question 10

Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?

Options:

A.

To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed

B.

To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements

C.

To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings

D.

To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results

Question 11

When conducting an assessment of a third party's physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a ‘Defense in Depth’ model?

Options:

A.

Public internal

B.

Restricted entry

C.

Private internal

D.

Public external

Question 12

When defining third party requirements for transmitting Pll, which factors provide stranger controls?

Options:

A.

Full disk encryption and backup

B.

Available bandwidth and redundancy

C.

Strength of encryption cipher and authentication method

D.

Logging and monitoring

Question 13

When evaluating compliance artifacts for change management, a robust process should include the following attributes:

Options:

A.

Approval, validation, auditable.

B.

Logging, approvals, validation, back-out and exception procedures

C.

Logging, approval, back-out.

D.

Communications, approval, auditable.

Question 14

Which factor is less important when reviewing application risk for application service providers?

Options:

A.

Remote connectivity

B.

The number of software releases

C.

The functionality and type of data the application processes

D.

APl integration

Question 15

Which of the following data types would be classified as low risk data?

Options:

A.

Sanitized customer data used for aggregated profiling

B.

Non personally identifiable, but sensitive to an organizations significant process

C.

Government-issued number, credit card number or bank account information

D.

Personally identifiable data but stored in a test environment cloud container

Question 16

Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is defined by regulatory obligations

B.

Findings from a vendor risk assessment may be defined at the entity level, and are based o na Specific topic or control

C.

Identifying findings from a vendor risk assessment can occur at any stage in the contract lifecycle

D.

Risk assessment findings identified by controls testing or validation should map back to the information gathering questionnaire and agreed upon framework

Question 17

Which of the following BEST reflects components of an environmental controls testing program?

Options:

A.

Scheduling testing of building access and intrusion systems

B.

Remote monitoring of HVAC, Smoke, Fire, Water or Power

C.

Auditing the CCTV backup process and card-key access process

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of personnel access controls and building intrusion systems

Question 18

Which statement is FALSE regarding background check requirements for vendors or service providers?

Options:

A.

Background check requirements are not applicable for vendors or service providers based outside the United States

B.

Background checks should be performed prior to employment and may be updated after employment based upon criteria in HR policies

C.

Background check requirements should be applied to employees, contract workers and temporary workers

D.

Background check requirements may differ based on level of authority, risk, or job role

Question 19

Information classification of personal information may trigger specific regulatory obligations. Which statement is the BEST response from a privacy perspective:

Options:

A.

Personally identifiable financial information includes only consumer report information

B.

Public personal information includes only web or online identifiers

C.

Personally identifiable information and personal data are similar in context, but may have different legal definitions based upon jurisdiction

D.

Personally Identifiable Information and Protected Healthcare Information require the exact same data protection safequards

Question 20

Which statement BEST represents the primary objective of a third party risk assessment:

Options:

A.

To assess the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization's systems/data

B.

To validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization's risk posture

C.

To determine the scope of the business relationship

D.

To evaluate the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory

Question 21

Which statement BEST represents the roles and responsibilities for managing corrective actions upon completion of an onsite or virtual assessment?

Options:

A.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with internal audit prior to issuing the assessment report

B.

All findings and remediation plans should be reviewed with the vendor prior to sharing results with the line of business

C.

All findings and need for remediation should be reviewed with the line of business for risk acceptance prior to sharing the remediation plan with the vendor

D.

All findings should be shared with the vendor as quickly as possible so that remediation steps can be taken as quickly as possible

Question 22

Which statement is FALSE regarding the different types of contracts and agreements between outsourcers and service providers?

Options:

A.

Contract addendums are not sufficient for addressing third party risk obligations as each requirement must be outlined in the Master Services Agreement (MSA)

B.

Evergreen contracts are automatically renewed for each party after the maturity period, unless terminated under existing contract provisions

C.

Requests for Proposals (RFPs) for outsourced services should include mandatory requirements based on an organization's TPRM program policies, standards and procedures

D.

Statements of Work (SOWs) define operational requirements and obligations for each party

Question 23

Which example of a response to external environmental factors is LEAST likely to be managed directly within the BCP or IT DR plan?

Options:

A.

Protocols for social media channels and PR communication

B.

Response to a natural or man-made disruption

C.

Dependency on key employee or supplier issues

D.

Response to a large scale illness or health outbreak

Question 24

Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?

Options:

A.

Configuration

B.

Log retention

C.

Approvals

D.

Testing

Question 25

Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?

Options:

A.

The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier

B.

Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control

C.

Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated

D.

All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment

Question 26

Which of the following BEST describes the distinction between a regulation and a standard?

Options:

A.

A regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies “can voluntarily choose to follow standards.

B.

There is no distinction, regulations and standards are the same and have equal impact

C.

Standards are always a subset of a regulation

D.

A standard must be adhered to by companies based on the industry they are in, while regulations are voluntary.

Question 27

Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?

Options:

A.

Subcontractor notice and approval

B.

Indemnification and liability

C.

Breach notification

D.

Right to audit

Question 28

When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor's patch

management controls?

Options:

A.

The capability of the vendor to apply priority patching of high-risk systems

B.

Established procedures for testing of patches, service packs, and hot fixes prior to installation

C.

A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications

D.

The existence of a formal process for evaluation and prioritization of known vulnerabilities

Question 29

The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies

EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device

B.

A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts alt offboarding

C.

A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device

D.

A statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems

Question 30

At which level of reporting are changes in TPRM program metrics rare and exceptional?

Options:

A.

Business unit

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk committee

D.

Board of Directors

Question 31

All of the following processes are components of controls evaluation in the Third Party Risk Assessment process EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Reviewing compliance artifacts for the presence of control attributes

B.

Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit

C.

Analyzing assessment results to identify and report risk

D.

Scoping the assessment based on identified risk factors

Question 32

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a virtual assessment:

Options:

A.

Virtual assessment agendas and planning should identify who should be available for interviews

B.

Virtual assessment planning should identify what documentation is available for review prior to and during the assessment

C.

Virtual assessments should be used to validate or confirm understanding of key controls, and not be used simply to review questionnaire responses

D.

Virtual assessments include using interviews with subject matter experts since controls evaluation and testing cannot be performed virtually

Question 33

Which requirement is NOT included in IT asset end-of-life (EOL) processes?

Options:

A.

The requirement to conduct periodic risk assessments to determine end-of-life

B.

The requirement to track status using a change initiation request form

C.

The requirement to track updates to third party provided systems or applications for any planned end-of-life support

D.

The requirement to establish defined procedures for secure destruction al sunset of asset

Question 34

Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?

Options:

A.

Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events

B.

Providing a checklist for self-assessment

C.

Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards

D.

Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis

Question 35

Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?

Options:

A.

Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties

B.

Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)

C.

Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements

D.

Change at outsourcer due to M&A

Question 36

Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data encryption

C.

Data anonymization

D.

Data compression

Question 37

The BEST way to manage Fourth-Nth Party risk is:

Options:

A.

Include a provision in the vender contract requiring the vendor to provide notice and obtain written consent before outsourcing any service

B.

Include a provision in the contract prohibiting the vendor from outsourcing any service which includes access to confidential data or systems

C.

Incorporate notification and approval contract provisions for subcontracting that require evidence of due diligence as defined by a TPRM program

D.

Require the vendor to maintain a cyber-insurance policy for any service that is outsourced which includes access to confidential data or systems

Page: 1 / 13
Total 125 questions