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SOFE AFE Accredited Financial Examiner Exam Practice Test

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Total 286 questions

Accredited Financial Examiner Questions and Answers

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Question 1

With the advent of adjustable rate mortgages, amortization schedules are adjusted periodically as dictated by the terms of the loan agreement. A _____________file is used to indicate when to adjust the rate. Most computer software systems can adjust amortization schedules by reminding the company of change dates, accept current rate adjustments, and to produce new schedules.

Options:

A.

Automated software

B.

Tickler or reminder

C.

Emergency

D.

Excel

Question 2

What allows an entity to eliminate the reserve that was recorded for the claim, even if it exceeded the amount paid for the settlement?

Options:

A.

ethical act

B.

controlled procedure

C.

structured settlement

D.

None of the above

Question 3

The adjustments of the premium during the period of coverage based on actual experience during that same period are called:

Options:

A.

Policy rating

B.

Schedule rating

C.

Experience rating

D.

Retrospective Experience rating

Question 4

Uncollected premiums

Options:

A.

Are also an asset in statutory accounting

B.

Are usually those past the due date but in the grace period

C.

Accounting is similar to that for deferred premiums in that only the net premiums are necessary to match the reserve liability

D.

Only A and B

Question 5

The process of analyzing and projecting the trends of a company’s capital position given its current circumstances, its recent past, and its intended business plan under a variety of future scenarios is called:

Options:

A.

Permanence and Reliability Testing

B.

Dynamic Capital Adequacy Testing

C.

Capital Market Testing

D.

None of the above

Question 6

An annuity contract provides:

Options:

A.

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a minimum guaranteed amount for those annuities not having life contingencies

B.

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a minimum guaranteed amount for those annuities involving life contingencies

C.

Either immediately or at some future date, perpetual income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a maximum guaranteed amount for those annuities involving life contingencies

D.

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain small number of payments

Question 7

SAP stresses measurement of emerging earnings of a business from period to period while GAAP stresses measurement of the ability to pay claims in the future.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 8

What features a reserve that accumulates at company declared credited interest rates, which are periodically reset?

Options:

A.

Credited life insurance

B.

Periodic life insurance

C.

Premium life insurance

D.

Universal life insurance

Question 9

The estimated amount receivable from third parties from whom the insured may have the right to recover damages is known as:

Options:

A.

reduction for subrogation

B.

reduction for salvation

C.

reduction for damages

D.

reduction for paid losses

Question 10

Coverage of risks that do not fit normal underwriting patterns and that are not commensurate with standard rates is normally refers to as:

Options:

A.

Surplus lines

B.

Commercial lines

C.

Risk lines

D.

Standardized lines

Question 11

The ten largest companies account for what percent of life insurance sales in Canada?

Options:

A.

less than 50 percent

B.

more than 65 percent

C.

more than 75 percent

D.

less than 80 percent

Question 12

An instrument that grants the holder the right but not the obligation to buy the underlying asset at a specified strike price is known as:

Options:

A.

Sell Option

B.

Call Option

C.

Buy Option

D.

None of the above

Question 13

Interest rates are a key element of any option pricing exercise because cash flows are discounted at interest.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 14

What funnels premium dollars into separate accounts which means segregated pools of bonds or stocks?

Options:

A.

Variable life insurance

B.

Periodic life insurance

C.

Insurance plan

D.

Isolated Interest rate

Question 15

At the end of each reporting period, unearned premiums are calculated and the change in unearned premiums is recorded as a change or debit to premium income.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 16

When no tax deductions are allowed if risks are not transferred, whereas premiums paid to insurers are tax deducible, this leads to the formation of:

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Claims

C.

Captives

D.

Fronting

Question 17

These are the loans in which:

Arrangement is usually called commitment When the structure is completed and put in service, the loan is paid off from the proceeds of the long term financing, whatever its source Proper controls would require the lender to obtain documentation for the disbursed portion of the construction loan and be assured that the cost of the structure to date is equivalent to the disbursed portion of the construction loan. What are these?

Options:

A.

Undeveloped Land Loans

B.

Construction Loans

C.

Development Loans

D.

Residential Loans

Question 18

The method which assumes that an entity’s experience in estimating case-basis reserves will be repeated in the future is called:

Options:

A.

Paid loss projection

B.

Reported loss development projection

C.

Incurred loss projection

D.

Internal entity loss projection

Question 19

During the underwriting process, information related to a mortgage loan is collected, and this information is the basis for a final decision as to whether or not the loan should be made. The documents generated during this underwriting process are all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Loan applications

B.

Credit reports

C.

Borrower’s financial statements

D.

Periodic inspection reports

Question 20

What is applied to the sale of all or a block of an entity’s insurance in force of another entity?

Options:

A.

Insurance impede

B.

Portfolio Reinsurance

C.

Poly-holder insurance

D.

Syndicated insurance

Question 21

The operating ratio is the combined ratio less than the ratio of investment income, to earned premiums.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 22

What is characterized by liabilities “shorter” than assets, which can lead to the liquidation of assets at depressed values in times of higher than expected interest rates?

Options:

A.

Reinvestment risk

B.

Actual interest risk

C.

Capital value risk

D.

None of the above

Question 23

Policy loan:

Options:

A.

On policies are valuable to the policyholders, and insurers encourage them to protect this feature by saving it for emergency use

B.

Interest rate is raised to eight percent

C.

Interest rate was raised to eight percent, and later variable rates were approved

D.

Do not have variable principal payments or a maturity

Question 24

Which of the following may NOT involve a high degree of management judgment and subjectivity and may present risks of material misstatement due to fraud?

Options:

A.

Investments

B.

Deferred acquisition costs

C.

Reinsurance

D.

key estimates

Question 25

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

the financial position of an entity with a 2-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is less affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 4-to-1 ratio.

B.

the financial position of an entity with a 2-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is more affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 4-to-1 ratio.

C.

the financial position of an entity with a 4-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is less affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 2-to-1 ratio.

D.

the financial position of an entity with a 4-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is more affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 2-to-1 ratio.

Question 26

The options for securities that insurance entities own and can deliver if the options are exercised by the option buyers are called:

Options:

A.

concealed transactions

B.

covered-call options

C.

financial servicing

D.

safekeeping

Question 27

These are securities whose underlying assets consist of commercial mortgage loans. The commercial loans are pooled, which brings diversification and liquidity to the asset class.

What are these?

Options:

A.

Conventional securities

B.

CMBS

C.

Subordinated securities

D.

Securitization

Question 28

There are many different sources of CMBS. Conduits and aggregate pools generally consist of loans newly originated, purchased or held by investment bankers until the pool is large enough for an efficient execution. Government agencies such as the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corp. (FHLMC) are important sources of:

Options:

A.

Residential financing

B.

B2B financing.

C.

Commercial financing.

D.

Mortgage loans

Question 29

Which investments held by life insurance enterprises should be carried in the balance sheet at amortized cost?

Options:

A.

Appraisal-term acts

B.

Variable-term portfolio

C.

Fixed-term portfolio

D.

Revenue-earned portfolio

Question 30

Which control includes the procedures for system design, including the acquisition of software packages, should encourage active participation by the accounting department and internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Organizations and operations control

B.

System development control

C.

Access control

D.

Procedural control

Question 31

What technique uses a risk-adjusted discount rate and contractual, promised, or most likely cash flows?

Options:

A.

Asset/Liability weighted

B.

Fair value

C.

Present value

D.

Discount rate adjustment

Question 32

Fidelity bonds cover employees against dishonest acts by employees.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 33

Audit regulatory is more reliable when it is obtained from knowledgeable independent sources inside the entity.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 34

All operations under common control are combined, intercompany balances and transactions are eliminated and the effects of minority interests are recorded through:

Options:

A.

Managed transactions

B.

Controlled investment

C.

Consolidation

D.

Monitory control

Question 35

is the price in a hypothetical transaction at the measurement date in the market in which the reporting entity would transact for the asset or liability

Options:

A.

Feasible financial price

B.

Asset/Liability price

C.

Principal price

D.

Exchange price

Question 36

Which of the following id NOT the kind of Insurance?

Options:

A.

Business policies

B.

fire and alliance lines

C.

inland marine

D.

professional liability

Question 37

Sales of securities are recorded as of the trade date. A receivable due from the broker is established in instances when a security has been sold, but the proceeds from the sale have not been received. Receivable for securities not received within settlement date are non-admitted, and are classified as other than invested assets.

Options:

A.

15 days

B.

30 days

C.

35 days

D.

90 days

Question 38

With fixed deferred annuities;

Options:

A.

the credited rate is determined fiscally and declared by the insurance company

B.

the debited rate is periodically re-determined and declared by the organization

C.

the credited rate is periodically re-determined and declared by the insurance company

D.

the debited rate is determined fiscally and declared by the organization

Question 39

Generally, residential loans are open to prepayment at any time without penalty. To protect against a deficiency, mortgage loans should not exceed the market value of the mortgaged property and in fact are usually made for:

Options:

A.

No more than 80 percent of the value

B.

Not less than 80 percent of the value

C.

No more than 90 percent of the value

D.

Not less than 70 percent of the value

Question 40

Traditional insurance risks are generally are random and average out over larger populations.

Options:

A.

Systematic

B.

Nonsystematic

C.

Dynamic

D.

Productive

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT of equity market sensitivities that are usually considered in dynamic hedging?

Options:

A.

Delta

B.

Vega

C.

theta

D.

alpha

Question 42

Identification and documentation of the controls and policies which address the risk management issues for each of the Standards is the necessary step for:

Options:

A.

Operational procedure

B.

Guideline procedure

C.

Organizational policy

D.

Self-assessment process

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Total 286 questions